ATI RN
Multiple Choice Questions On Urinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most common genetic cause for male infertility is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 47 XXY (Klinefelter syndrome) is the most common genetic male infertility cause extra X disrupts spermatogenesis, causing azoospermia. 47 XYY (Jacob's) rarely affects fertility normal testes. 45 XO (Turner's) is female, not male irrelevant. 46 XY is normal male karyotype no infertility link. Klinefelter's chromosomal excess distinguishes it, critical for genetic infertility, unlike rare, female, or normal variants.
Question 2 of 5
A 34 year male has road traffic accident. His vital signs are stable and there are no significant external injuries. CT scan revealed deep parenchymal lacerations in the right kidney. The next step is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delayed imaging assesses pelvicalyceal integrity (e.g., urine leak) in stable deep lacerations guides conservative vs. intervention. Open repair risks unnecessary surgery stability favors watching. Embolization suits vascular injury, not parenchymal mismatch. Nephrectomy is extreme preservation priority. Delayed imaging distinguishes it, key to defining injury extent, unlike premature or radical steps.
Question 3 of 5
The current indications for sacral neuromodulation include all except
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sacral neuromodulation treats urgency, frequency, and urge incontinence modulates sacral nerves (S3) for bladder control. Interstitial cystitis (IC) isn't a standard indication pain-focused, variable response, not primary use. Urgency/frequency tie to overactivity responsive. Urge incontinence is core strong evidence. IC's exclusion distinguishes it, critical for neuromodulation's scope, unlike included overactive symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
All of the following statements regarding histopathological feature of spermatocytic seminoma are correct, EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spermatocytic seminoma lacks lymphocyte infiltration unlike classic seminoma, it's stroma-poor. Glycogen-negative true, lacks storage. PLAP-negative correct, not embryonal marker. Round nuclei accurate, typical feature. Absent lymphocytes distinguish it, key to its unique histopathology (older men, benign), unlike glycogen, PLAP, or nuclear truths.
Question 5 of 5
A 68 years old male presented with gross painless hematuria for last 7 days. On evaluation 3.5 cm × 2.5 cm growth detected on base of urinary bladder. Post TURBT histopathological report suggestive of non-muscle invasive micropapillary variant of urothelial carcinoma. Metastatic workups were negative. The next best treatment option for him is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Micropapillary urothelial carcinoma (non-muscle-invasive) warrants radical cystectomy aggressive, high recurrence/progression risk despite NMIBC status. BCG is standard for typical NMIBC insufficient here. Neoadjuvant chemo suits muscle-invasive overkill now. Re-TURBT assesses residual, but micropapillary's behavior pushes cystectomy. Radical approach distinguishes it, key to curbing this variant's potential, unlike conservative or staging options.