The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is

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Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), the most common complication is a pneumothorax, making option B the correct answer. A pneumothorax occurs when air leaks into the space between the lung and chest wall, causing the lung to collapse partially or fully. This is a critical complication in RDS as it can further compromise the already fragile respiratory status of the newborn. Option A, cerebral palsy, is not a common complication of RDS. Cerebral palsy is a group of disorders that affect movement and muscle tone, typically caused by brain damage before, during, or shortly after birth. Option C, Klumpke’s palsy, is a condition involving paralysis of the lower brachial plexus, usually occurring during childbirth. Option D, fractured ribs, may occur in severe cases of RDS due to the increased effort required for breathing, but it is not as common as pneumothorax in this context. From an educational perspective, understanding the complications of RDS is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in neonatal care. Recognizing and managing complications promptly can significantly impact the outcomes for newborns affected by RDS. This question highlights the importance of vigilance and knowledge in caring for infants with respiratory distress, emphasizing the need for prompt assessment and intervention to prevent serious complications like pneumothorax.

Question 2 of 5

The type of D.V.T. that is characterized by formation of non-detachable clot(s) within an inflamed vein is known as

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and obstetrics, it is crucial to understand the different types of conditions related to deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The correct answer to the question is D) Thrombophlebitis. Thrombophlebitis refers to the inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot. In this type of DVT, the clot is typically attached to the inflamed vein wall, making it potentially detachable and at risk of causing complications if dislodged. Option A) Phlebothrombosis refers to the formation of a clot in a vein without significant inflammation, so it does not fit the description given in the question. Option B) Coagulopathy is a general term for disorders of blood clotting, not specific to the formation of clots within inflamed veins. Option C) Pelviopathy is not a recognized term in the context of DVT or thrombosis. Understanding the differences between these terms is essential for healthcare professionals, especially in midwifery practice where DVT can be a serious complication. Recognizing the characteristics of thrombophlebitis can help in early identification and management of this condition to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

Question 3 of 5

Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to puerperal psychosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and mental health, understanding puerperal psychosis is crucial in the field of midwifery. The correct answer, B) Majority of the patients present with manic episodes, is supported by research indicating that puerperal psychosis often presents with symptoms of mania, such as elevated mood, impulsivity, and agitation. This is important to note as it helps differentiate puerperal psychosis from other postpartum mood disorders. Option A is incorrect because while some patients may experience depression, the majority present with manic symptoms in puerperal psychosis. Option C is incorrect as a personal history of mental disorder is not always a direct cause of puerperal psychosis, although it can be a risk factor. Option D is also incorrect as the occurrence of post-partum blues is not indicative of puerperal psychosis; post-partum blues are common and generally resolve on their own without progressing to psychosis. Educationally, understanding the nuances of puerperal psychosis is critical for midwives and healthcare providers working with postpartum individuals. By recognizing the symptoms of manic episodes as a hallmark of puerperal psychosis, healthcare professionals can provide timely and appropriate interventions to support patients experiencing this serious condition.

Question 4 of 5

Laryngeal stridor as a congenital abnormality is caused by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and neonatal care, understanding the causes of laryngeal stridor is crucial for midwives and healthcare providers. Laryngeal stridor as a congenital abnormality is commonly caused by laryngomalacia, which is the collapse of the laryngeal structures during inspiration. This results in noisy breathing or stridor, especially when the baby inhales. Option A, choanal atresia, is a congenital condition where the back of the nasal passage is blocked, leading to respiratory distress, but it does not directly cause laryngeal stridor. Option C, diaphragmatic hernia, involves a hole in the diaphragm allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, impacting lung development but not directly causing laryngeal stridor. Option D, Hirschsprung’s disease, is a gastrointestinal disorder related to missing nerve cells in the intestines, which does not typically manifest with laryngeal stridor. Educationally, understanding these distinctions is essential for midwives to accurately assess and manage neonates with respiratory abnormalities. Recognizing laryngomalacia as a common cause of laryngeal stridor can guide appropriate interventions and referrals to ensure optimal care for newborns with this condition.

Question 5 of 5

Teratogenic causes of congenital malformations include

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Radiation and substance of abuse. Teratogenic causes of congenital malformations refer to factors that can disrupt normal fetal development and lead to birth defects. Radiation exposure and the use of certain substances of abuse, such as alcohol, tobacco, or certain drugs, are well-documented teratogens. Radiation can interfere with cell division and differentiation in the developing fetus, leading to structural abnormalities. Substances of abuse can cross the placenta and affect fetal development, causing a range of issues from growth restriction to organ malformations. Option A) Infective agents and chromosomes, and Option C) Prematurity and prophylactic antibiotics are not directly related to teratogenic causes of congenital malformations. While some infections or chromosomal abnormalities can contribute to birth defects, they are not classified as teratogens in the same way as radiation or substances of abuse. Option D) Substance of abuse and postdatism is incorrect because postdatism, which refers to a pregnancy that extends past the due date, is not a recognized teratogenic cause of congenital malformations. Understanding teratogenic causes is crucial in prenatal care and counseling to help expectant mothers make informed decisions to protect the health and development of their babies. Educating healthcare providers and pregnant individuals about these factors is essential in promoting healthy pregnancies and reducing the risk of birth defects.

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