ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pneumothorax is a common complication of respiratory distress syndrome in neonates.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given the patient's presentation of acute onset severe abdominal pain, the AGACNP anticipates abnormalities in serum amylase and lipase levels, as this can indicate pancreatitis. The presence of symptoms such as severe upper abdominal pain, along with the patient's risk factors such as heavy alcohol consumption, smoking, and dyslipidemia, increase suspicion for acute pancreatitis. Additionally, the evaluation of serum glucose levels is important to assess for potential hyperglycemia, which can be seen in acute pancreatitis. Liver function enzymes and basic metabolic panel may also be abnormal in the setting of pancreatitis; however, the most specific and sensitive tests for diagnosing acute pancreatitis are serum amylase and lipase levels.
Question 3 of 9
R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a 71-year-old female presenting with left lower quadrant pain and a history of constipation, the most likely differential diagnosis to consider is diverticulitis. A CT scan with IV, oral, and rectal contrast is the diagnostic test of choice for confirming suspected diverticulitis. It is considered the gold standard imaging modality for evaluating acute abdominal pain and can help identify diverticula, inflammation, abscesses, and complications such as perforation or obstruction.
Question 4 of 9
Uterine apoplexy is associated with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is associated with placental abruption, which causes uterine rupture.
Question 5 of 9
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In patients with Cushing's syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor, removal of the tumor can result in a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. This occurs because the suppressed pituitary gland begins to recover and overproduce hormones in response to the sudden decrease in negative feedback from the removed tumor. As a result, patients may experience transient hormonal fluctuations before the pituitary gland establishes a new equilibrium. Therefore, when seeing the patient in follow-up after surgery, the AGACNP should anticipate a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones rather than immediate and rapid reversal of symptoms or markedly improved test results. Additionally, hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH are less likely in this scenario unless there are other underlying factors contributing to it.
Question 6 of 9
The maneuver used in management of shoulder dystocia whereby the midwife first identifies the posterior shoulder then tries to rotate it in the direction of the fetal chest is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rubin’s maneuver involves rotating the posterior shoulder to relieve shoulder dystocia.
Question 7 of 9
A patient being monitored post-heart transplant suffers a bradyarrhythmia. The AGACNP knows that which of the following medications is not indicated as part of emergency intervention for bradycardic abnormalities in a posttransplant patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is not indicated as part of emergency intervention for bradycardic abnormalities in posttransplant patients. Epinephrine is a medication usually used in cases of cardiac arrest or severe anaphylaxis, and it can potentially exacerbate bradycardia in patients with preexisting bradyarrhythmias. In this scenario, other options such as isoproterenol, external pacemaking, and atropine are more appropriate choices for managing bradyarrhythmias in a posttransplant patient.
Question 8 of 9
A Para 3+0 client who was scheduled for the fourth cesarean section comes in active labor. The MAIN complication of concern in this case is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main concern for a woman with multiple previous cesarean sections is uterine rupture.
Question 9 of 9
Vitamin K prevents hemorrhagic disease of the neonate by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K activates dormant clotting factors, preventing hemorrhagic disease in neonates.