The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is

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Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 9

The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pneumothorax. Respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by difficulty breathing due to immature lungs in premature infants. Pneumothorax, a condition where air leaks into the chest cavity, is a common complication as the fragile lungs are prone to air leaks. Cerebral palsy (A), epilepsy (C), and fractured ribs (D) are not direct complications of respiratory distress syndrome. Pneumothorax is the most likely and common complication due to the fragility of the premature infant's lungs.

Question 2 of 9

Effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because preeclampsia can lead to poor placental anchorage, which results in reduced blood flow to the placenta, leading to severe infarction. This can cause adverse effects on the fetus and the mother. Choice A is incorrect because infarcts and placental abruption are not specific effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because lowered vaginal discharge pH and hemorrhage are not typical effects of preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect because congestive cardiac failure and fetal hypoxia are not direct effects of preeclampsia on the reproductive system.

Question 3 of 9

The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma are at risk of dehydration due to increased fluid loss. Step 2: Encouraging plenty of fluids helps maintain hydration levels. Step 3: Proper hydration supports kidney function and aids in flushing out bacteria, reducing infection risk. Step 4: Adequate hydration also promotes tissue healing and prevents complications. Step 5: Therefore, the main aim of encouraging plenty of fluids is to keep the client well hydrated.

Question 4 of 9

The most common complication of respiratory distress syndrome is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pneumothorax. Respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by difficulty breathing due to immature lungs in premature infants. Pneumothorax, a condition where air leaks into the chest cavity, is a common complication as the fragile lungs are prone to air leaks. Cerebral palsy (A), epilepsy (C), and fractured ribs (D) are not direct complications of respiratory distress syndrome. Pneumothorax is the most likely and common complication due to the fragility of the premature infant's lungs.

Question 5 of 9

Three (3) types of breech presentation:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech, complete breech, footling breech. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and extended at the knees. In a complete breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are aimed at the birth canal with legs flexed at the hips and knees. In a footling breech presentation, one or both of the baby's feet are positioned to come out first. These are the three main types of breech presentations. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe the different types of breech presentations, making them incorrect.

Question 6 of 9

Ms. OReilly is a 69-year-old patient who is having a bowel resection for a malignant tumor of the right colon. She has several chronic medical conditions and takes numerous daily medications, including metoprolol 100 mg daily, warfarin 5 mg daily, vitamin E 200 units daily, and metformin 1000 mg bid. Which of the following regimens is the most appropriate approach to managing her medications preoperatively?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is important to manage medications appropriately preoperatively to minimize complications. Metoprolol, a beta blocker, should be continued up until the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension or tachycardia. Metformin should be held on the day of surgery to avoid potential lactic acidosis due to its effects on kidney function. Warfarin should be discontinued 5-7 days before surgery to reduce the risk of bleeding. Vitamin E can increase bleeding risk and should be discontinued. Choice A is incorrect as not all medications should be taken until the morning of surgery. Choice C is incorrect as warfarin should be held earlier than 5 days before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as metformin should be held on the day of surgery, regardless of blood sugar levels, to prevent lactic acidosis.

Question 7 of 9

S. R. is a 51-year-old male patient who is being evaluated for fatigue. Over the last few months he has noticed a marked decrease in activity tolerance. Physical examination reveals a variety of ecchymoses of unknown origin. The CBC is significant for a Hgb of 10.1 gdL, an MCV of 72 fL and a platelet count of 65,000L the remainder of the CBC is normal. Coagulation studies are normal, but bleeding time is prolonged. The AGACNP recognizes that initial management of this patient will include

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Splenectomy. In this case, the patient presents with signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) with low platelet count and bleeding time prolongation. Splenectomy is the definitive treatment for ITP as the spleen is the site of platelet destruction. Avoiding elective surgery and medications (choice A) may be necessary to prevent bleeding complications but do not address the underlying issue. Prednisone (choice B) is used for acute treatment but not for long-term management. Monoclonal antibody therapy (choice C) is an option for refractory cases but not first-line therapy.

Question 8 of 9

Causes of Down syndrome are

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Down syndrome is primarily caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. This means there is an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic features of the syndrome. Mosaicism and translocation of chromosome 21 can also result in Down syndrome, albeit less frequently. Option A includes deletion, which is not a common cause of Down syndrome. Option B lists duplication, which is not a typical mechanism for Down syndrome. Option C includes deletion and mosaicism, but trisomy is the main cause of Down syndrome, making option D the most accurate choice.

Question 9 of 9

A characteristic of monozygotic twins is that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, develop from a single fertilized egg and share the same genetic material. This results in them always being of the same sex. Choice B is incorrect because fingerprint patterns are not solely determined by genetics. Choice C is incorrect because monozygotic twins will have the same blood group since they share the same DNA. Choice D is incorrect because superfetation, the fertilization of multiple eggs at different times during the same pregnancy, is not common in monozygotic twins.

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