The most common complication of mumps infection is:

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Question 1 of 5

The most common complication of mumps infection is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the complications of common childhood infections like mumps is crucial for providing effective care. The correct answer is C) Meningoencephalitis. Meningoencephalitis, inflammation of the brain and its surrounding membranes, is a serious complication of mumps that can lead to neurological problems, seizures, and even death. This is because the mumps virus can spread to the central nervous system, causing significant damage. Option A) Arthritis is not the most common complication of mumps. While mumps can sometimes lead to joint pain and swelling, arthritis is not the primary concern associated with this infection. Option B) Nephritis, inflammation of the kidneys, is not a typical complication of mumps. Mumps primarily affects the salivary glands and can lead to complications in other organs, but nephritis is not commonly associated with mumps. Option D) Thyroiditis, inflammation of the thyroid gland, is not a common complication of mumps infection. Mumps typically affects the parotid glands, and while it can affect other organs, thyroiditis is not a primary concern in mumps cases. Educationally, understanding the complications of mumps helps healthcare providers anticipate and manage potential issues that may arise in pediatric patients. By knowing that meningoencephalitis is a serious complication of mumps, nurses and other healthcare professionals can monitor for neurological symptoms and intervene promptly to prevent serious consequences. This knowledge is vital in providing comprehensive care to pediatric patients with mumps and ensuring positive outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

Auscultation of diastolic murmur in a child with VSD may be related to which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the significance of auscultating diastolic murmurs in a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) is crucial. The correct answer is D) All of the above. This is because the presence of a diastolic murmur in a child with VSD can indicate the development of complications such as aortic regurgitation, pulmonary hypertension, or a significant left-to-right shunt. Aortic regurgitation can occur due to the increased volume load on the left ventricle from the left-to-right shunt caused by the VSD. Pulmonary hypertension can develop as a result of increased pulmonary blood flow from the left-to-right shunt, leading to elevated pressures in the pulmonary vasculature. A significant left-to-right shunt can result in increased blood flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, causing volume overload on the right side of the heart. It is important for pediatric nurses to be able to recognize these potential complications early through auscultation findings to prompt timely interventions and prevent further cardiac issues in children with VSD. Understanding the pathophysiology behind these complications is essential for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients with congenital heart defects.

Question 3 of 5

Following diagnosis of initial attack of rheumatic fever (RF), RF is considered 'ACTIVE' if any of the following is present Except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing and the diagnosis of rheumatic fever (RF), it is crucial to understand the criteria for considering RF as 'ACTIVE.' In this case, the correct answer is D) Subcutaneous nodules. Subcutaneous nodules are a major Jones criteria for chronic rheumatic heart disease, not for diagnosing an acute attack of RF. The presence of subcutaneous nodules indicates a more advanced stage of rheumatic heart disease rather than an initial attack of RF. A) Fever of > 38°C for at least 3 consecutive days is a common symptom seen in RF and indicates an active inflammatory process. B) Positive acute phase reactants like elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein levels are markers of inflammation and are expected in active RF. C) Elevated anti-streptococcal antibodies are also indicative of an immune response to streptococcal infection, which is associated with RF. Educationally, understanding the criteria for diagnosing and classifying RF as 'ACTIVE' is essential for providing proper care to pediatric patients. Nurses should be able to differentiate between the acute phase of RF and the chronic phase to facilitate appropriate management and prevent complications associated with rheumatic heart disease.

Question 4 of 5

One of the following is a characteristic feature of Mycoplasma pneumonia in the pediatric age group:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, it is crucial to understand the characteristic features of various illnesses to provide effective care. The correct answer, option C, states that there is a poor correlation between the severity of symptoms and physical findings in Mycoplasma pneumonia. This is accurate because children with this infection may have mild symptoms despite having significant lung involvement, making diagnosis challenging based solely on physical examination. Option A, stating a dramatic response to penicillin therapy, is incorrect because Mycoplasma pneumonia does not respond well to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall. Option B, high-grade fever as a common presentation, is also incorrect as fever in Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically low to moderate. Option D, sudden onset of symptoms, is not a consistent feature of this infection, as symptoms can develop gradually over time. Educationally, understanding these nuances in the presentation of Mycoplasma pneumonia in children is crucial for nurses to provide accurate assessments, timely interventions, and appropriate education to families. This knowledge helps in differentiating this infection from others with similar symptoms and guides the healthcare team in developing effective treatment plans tailored to each child's unique needs.

Question 5 of 5

The best initial treatment for transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the management of transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN), the best initial treatment is option C: oxygen therapy and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) if needed. This is because TTN is a self-limiting condition caused by delayed reabsorption of fetal lung fluid, and it typically resolves within 72 hours without specific treatment. Oxygen therapy helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels in the newborn while the condition resolves on its own. CPAP may be utilized if the baby is experiencing respiratory distress to provide continuous positive pressure and improve lung function without the need for intubation. Option A, immediate intubation, is not necessary as TTN is usually a mild and transient condition that does not require invasive interventions like intubation. Surfactant administration (Option B) is indicated for respiratory distress syndrome, not TTN. Broad-spectrum antibiotics (Option D) are not appropriate as TTN is not an infectious process but rather a result of retained lung fluid. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate management of TTN is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide safe and effective care to newborns. Recognizing the self-limiting nature of TTN and knowing when interventions are necessary helps prevent unnecessary procedures and promotes optimal outcomes for infants. Nurses must be equipped with this knowledge to differentiate between various respiratory conditions in newborns and provide evidence-based care.

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