The most common cause of pleural effusion in children is:

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Question 1 of 5

The most common cause of pleural effusion in children is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the etiology of pleural effusion is crucial for providing effective care to children. The correct answer is C) Infection. In children, pleural effusion is most commonly caused by infections such as pneumonia or tuberculosis. This is due to the inflammatory response triggered by the infection leading to fluid accumulation in the pleural space. Option A) Malignancy is less common in children compared to adults and is not a primary cause of pleural effusion in pediatric patients. Option B) Congestive heart failure may cause pleural effusion in adults, but it is rare in children. Option D) Hypoalbuminemia could lead to pleural effusion, but it is not as common a cause as infection in the pediatric population. Educationally, it is important for pediatric nurses to be aware of the primary causes of pleural effusion in children to guide assessment, diagnosis, and treatment effectively. Recognizing the association between infection and pleural effusion can help nurses prioritize interventions such as administering appropriate antibiotics and monitoring respiratory status closely in pediatric patients presenting with pleural effusion.

Question 2 of 5

The most commonly affected part of the GIT by tuberculosis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Terminal part of small intestine. In tuberculosis, the most commonly affected part of the gastrointestinal tract (GIT) is the terminal part of the small intestine. This area is particularly vulnerable due to its rich blood supply, which aids in the dissemination of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. The small intestine provides an ideal environment for the growth and spread of the bacteria, leading to characteristic lesions and ulcerations in this region. Option B) Terminal part of esophagus is incorrect because tuberculosis primarily affects the lower part of the GIT, particularly the small intestine, rather than the upper gastrointestinal tract like the esophagus. Option C) Terminal part of large intestine is incorrect as tuberculosis typically targets the small intestine rather than the large intestine. Option D) Pylorus is incorrect as tuberculosis does not commonly affect this part of the GIT. Understanding the specific areas of the GIT commonly affected by tuberculosis is crucial in pediatric nursing practice. Knowledge of these clinical manifestations helps in early identification, appropriate treatment, and prevention of complications associated with gastrointestinal tuberculosis in pediatric patients.

Question 3 of 5

A 5-year-old girl was brought to the ED with altered mental status. Kernig and Brudzinski signs were present. CSF shows: WBCs 1500/ul (80% neutrophils), Sugar 20 mg/dl, Protein 400 mg/dl, Positive Gram stain. You would interpret the CSF as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the CSF findings in this scenario is B) Bacterial Meningitis. This conclusion is reached based on several key indicators present in the CSF analysis: notably, the significantly elevated white blood cell count (1500/ul, 80% neutrophils), low glucose level (20 mg/dl), high protein level (400 mg/dl), and a positive Gram stain. In bacterial meningitis, the CSF typically shows a high white blood cell count with predominantly neutrophils, low glucose due to bacterial consumption, high protein due to increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier, and a positive Gram stain indicating the presence of bacteria. These findings align with the case presented and support the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The other options can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of the CSF findings in each condition. Viral encephalitis would typically show a lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF, normal or slightly low glucose levels, and a negative Gram stain. TB Meningitis would usually present with a lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein, and acid-fast bacilli seen on staining, which contrasts with the neutrophilic pleocytosis and positive Gram stain in this case. Understanding how to interpret CSF findings in pediatric patients is crucial for nurses working in emergency departments to promptly identify and initiate appropriate treatment for serious conditions like bacterial meningitis. This knowledge can help improve patient outcomes by ensuring timely interventions and preventing complications associated with central nervous system infections.

Question 4 of 5

Incubation period of measles is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) 1-2 weeks. The incubation period of measles refers to the time between exposure to the virus and the onset of symptoms. Measles typically has an incubation period of 1-2 weeks before symptoms such as fever, cough, runny nose, and rash appear. This window allows the virus to replicate in the body before causing noticeable illness. Option A) 2-4 days is incorrect because this timeframe is too short for the measles virus to cause symptoms. Measles has a longer incubation period. Option B) 5 days is also incorrect as it falls within the shorter range of the actual incubation period of measles. Symptoms typically do not appear this early. Option D) 3-4 weeks is too long for the measles virus to remain dormant in the body before symptoms manifest. Measles usually presents within 1-2 weeks post-exposure. Understanding the incubation period of measles is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric nurses, as it helps in identifying and managing potential cases to prevent further spread of the highly contagious virus. This knowledge also aids in implementing appropriate infection control measures in healthcare settings and in educating patients and families about the disease timeline.

Question 5 of 5

The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in newborn is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) d-Transposition of great arteries. In newborns, d-Transposition of great arteries is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease. This condition occurs when the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle, leading to two separate circulatory systems. This results in deoxygenated blood being pumped back to the body without passing through the lungs, causing cyanosis. Option A) Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic heart defect, but it is not the most common one in newborns. It consists of four abnormalities in the heart's structure. Option B) Ebstein anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect where the tricuspid valve is abnormally positioned, leading to blood flow issues. Option D) Hypoplastic left ventricle syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left side of the heart, causing decreased blood flow to the body. Understanding congenital heart diseases in newborns is crucial for pediatric nurses as they care for infants with these conditions. Recognizing the most common conditions helps in early identification, appropriate interventions, and improved outcomes. Nurses play a vital role in educating parents about the condition, treatment options, and providing support throughout the child's care journey.

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