The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is:

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Question 1 of 9

The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rotaviruses. Rotaviruses are the most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children due to their highly contagious nature and ability to spread easily in childcare settings. They are known to cause severe diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration in young children. Noroviruses (A), adenoviruses (B), and caliciviruses (D) can also cause diarrhea, but rotaviruses are specifically known for their prevalence and severity in the pediatric population. This is why C is the correct answer.

Question 2 of 9

Which bacteria are capable of forming spores to survive extreme conditions?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Both Clostridium botulinum and Bacillus anthracis are known to form spores. 2. Spore formation is a mechanism for survival in harsh conditions. 3. Both bacteria are capable of causing severe diseases in humans. Summary: - Choice A and B are incorrect because each bacteria listed is capable of spore formation. - Choice D is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned can form spores to survive extreme conditions.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following pathogens has the widest infectious spectrum?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the rabies virus. Rabies virus has the widest infectious spectrum among the given choices because it can infect a wide range of mammals, including humans. This is due to its ability to infect nerve cells and spread throughout the central nervous system. The other choices have more limited infectious spectra. Anthrax bacillus primarily infects herbivores and humans, mumps virus infects mainly humans, and the causative agent of gonorrhea primarily infects humans through sexual contact. Therefore, the rabies virus is the correct answer as it has the broadest range of potential hosts.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with chronic diarrhea had a stool sample revealing cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because Entamoeba histolytica is known to cause amebic dysentery, leading to chronic diarrhea. The presence of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Giardia lamblia (choice B) is known to cause diarrhea but does not present with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli (choice C) is a ciliated protozoan that can cause diarrhea, but it does not have cysts with four nuclei. Trichomonas hominis (choice D) is a non-pathogenic protozoan commonly found in the human colon and is not associated with causing chronic diarrhea or cysts with four nuclei.

Question 5 of 9

A 5-year-old kindergartener has diphtheria. To find the carriers of the disease among the kindergarten staff, samples of pharyngeal mucus were obtained from the employers. One of the employers had gram-positive bacilli in her sample. They were situated at an angle to each other and colored unevenly, when stained according to Loeffler. What method can confirm that this carrier is dangerous to other people?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxin production test. Rationale: 1. Diphtheria is caused by a toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. 2. To confirm if the carrier is dangerous, we need to test if they are producing the toxin. 3. The toxin production test directly assesses if the bacteria are producing the harmful toxin. 4. Positive results indicate the carrier is dangerous and can transmit the disease to others. Summary of other choices: B: Mouse neutralization test - Used to detect diphtheria antitoxin levels in blood, not to confirm if the carrier is dangerous. C: Immunofluorescence test - Used to detect specific antigens or antibodies, not directly related to confirming the carrier's danger. D: Complement fixation test - Measures immune response, not specific to toxin production confirmation.

Question 6 of 9

How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.

Question 7 of 9

In a microslide of the patient's regional lymph node stained with Giemsa method a doctor detected thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils with pointed tips, 10-13 micrometers in length, pale pink in color. In this case they can be identified as infectious agents of the following disease:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leishmaniasis. The description of thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils, 10-13 micrometers in length, and pale pink color matches the characteristics of Leishmania parasites seen in Giemsa-stained samples. Leishmania parasites are known to have a distinctive appearance with pointed tips and a specific size range. Syphilis (choice A) is caused by Treponema pallidum, which appears as tightly coiled spirochetes, not tendrils. Trypanosomiasis (choice B) is caused by Trypanosoma parasites, which have a different morphology and staining pattern. Relapsing fever (choice D) is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which does not match the description given. Therefore, the correct choice is C as the description aligns closely with the characteristic features of Leishmania parasites.

Question 8 of 9

A smear of streptobacillus preparation stained by Ozheshko method has been studied microscopically with oil immersion. What structural feature of the bacteria has been studied?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Structure of cell wall. When studying a bacterial smear stained by the Ozheshko method, the focus is on the cell wall structure. This staining method highlights the cell wall morphology, allowing for detailed examination. Flagella, spores, and capsules are not typically visualized using this staining method. Flagella require special staining techniques, spores are usually observed through specific staining methods like Schaeffer-Fulton, and capsules are not easily visualized with the Ozheshko staining method. Therefore, the structure of the cell wall is the most relevant feature to study in this context.

Question 9 of 9

The primary mode of action of aminoglycosides is to:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Aminoglycosides primarily inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit in bacteria. This action leads to misreading of mRNA and ultimately disrupts the translation process, resulting in faulty protein production and bacterial cell death. Incorrect choices: B: Aminoglycosides do not inhibit DNA replication. C: Aminoglycosides do not disrupt cell membrane integrity. D: Aminoglycosides do not inhibit folic acid synthesis. In summary, the correct choice (A) aligns with the known mechanism of action of aminoglycosides, making it the most appropriate answer.

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