ATI RN
Midwifery Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony, not trauma to the genital tract.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.
Question 2 of 9
Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.
Question 3 of 9
The MOST common type of breech presentation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet
Question 4 of 9
Respiratory distress syndrome is caused by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inadequate surfactant levels. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse. In respiratory distress syndrome, premature infants have insufficient surfactant production, leading to collapsed alveoli and difficulty breathing. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on quality rather than quantity of surfactant. Choice C is incorrect as rib cage underdevelopment is associated with congenital conditions like thoracic dystrophy, not RDS. Choice D is incorrect as gradual alveolar rupture is not a known cause of RDS.
Question 5 of 9
A correct statement denoting the purpose of vitamin K administration to neonates is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All neonates need vitamin K for activation of thrombokinase. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver, including thrombokinase, which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. In neonates, there is a deficiency of vitamin K due to limited transfer across the placenta and low levels in breast milk. Administering vitamin K at birth helps prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because vitamin K does not directly impact immunity, prevent jaundice, or promote normal gut bacteria growth in neonates.
Question 6 of 9
Ms. Kweke’s possible complications (obstructed labour):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Obstructed labor can lead to prolonged pressure on the uterus, causing hemorrhage and uterine rupture (A). 2. Prolonged labor can result in fetal distress due to reduced oxygen supply and potential infection (B). 3. Therefore, both complications mentioned in A and B can occur in obstructed labor. Summary: A: Incorrect - Preterm birth and asphyxia are not directly related to obstructed labor. B: Incorrect - Only fetal distress and infection are commonly associated with obstructed labor. C: Incorrect - Both A and B are possible complications of obstructed labor, making D the correct choice.
Question 7 of 9
With respect to tumor nomenclature, the AGACNP knows that the term carcinoma describes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the term "carcinoma" specifically refers to neoplasms of epithelial origin. Epithelial cells line the surfaces and cavities of the body, so carcinomas originate from these tissues. This term does not describe internal structure (A), loss of growth regulation (B), or metaplastic adaptation (C). Carcinomas are the most common type of cancer and can occur in various organs such as the skin, lungs, breasts, and colon.
Question 8 of 9
Uterine apoplexy is associated with
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine apoplexy is the sudden rupture of blood vessels in the uterus, leading to severe hemorrhage. Placental abruption is the most likely cause due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in bleeding. Incidental hemorrhage is not sudden or severe. Multiple pregnancy may increase the risk but doesn't directly cause uterine apoplexy. Placenta previa involves the placenta covering the cervix, leading to bleeding but not necessarily uterine rupture. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Question 9 of 9
Jake is a 32-year-old patient who is recovering from major abdominal surgery and organ resection following a catastrophic motor vehicle accident. Due to the nature of his injuries, a large portion of his jejunum had to be resected. In planning for his recovery and nutritional needs, the AGACNP considers that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: His procedure has put him at significant risk for B12 absorption problems. Rationale: 1. Jejunum is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption, including B12. 2. Resection of a large portion of the jejunum can lead to malabsorption of B12. 3. B12 is essential for neurological function and red blood cell production. 4. Patients with significant jejunum resection are at high risk for B12 deficiency. 5. Monitoring B12 levels and potentially requiring supplementation is crucial for patients like Jake. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect. Lifetime issues with diarrhea are not necessarily expected following jejunum resection. C: Incorrect. The ileum may assume some functions of the jejunum but cannot fully compensate. D: Incorrect. Enteral nutrition should not be delayed for months as it is essential for Jake's recovery and nutritional needs.