ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.
Question 2 of 9
In which situation would a healthcare surrogate or proxy a ssume the end-of-life decision-making role for a patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in this situation, the patient is no longer able to make decisions for themselves due to being heavily sedated. The healthcare surrogate or proxy steps in to make decisions on behalf of the patient to ensure their comfort and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because the patient is competent and able to make their own decisions, so there is no need for a surrogate to take over decision-making. Choice C is incorrect because the patient is competent and has the right to make decisions about their own treatment, even if they go against medical recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because the patient is competent and receiving appropriate treatment for their pain and anxiety, so there is no need for a surrogate to intervene in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
Question 4 of 9
A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. This finding is consistent with a basilar skull fracture because it indicates a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the skull base. The Halo sign refers to a ring of CSF surrounded by blood, which can be seen on a white absorbent pad. This specific sign is a classic indicator of a basilar skull fracture, as the CSF leakage from the ears or nose can be tinged with blood due to the fracture disrupting nearby blood vessels. For the other choices: A: Hematemesis and abdominal distention are not typical manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. They are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues or internal bleeding. B: Asymmetry of the face and eye movements can be seen with facial nerve or orbital injuries, but it is not specific to a basilar skull fracture. D: Abnormal position and movement of the arm are not directly related to a
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a very seriously ill patient in the CCU. The family visits sporadically, stays for only a short time, and does not ask many questions. How could the nurse best begin to involve the family in the patients care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the family to complete the Critical Care Family Needs Inventory. This tool helps assess the family's needs and concerns, enabling the nurse to tailor care accordingly. By understanding the family's specific needs, the nurse can provide appropriate support and information, fostering better involvement and understanding. A: Asking one family member to assist with the patient's bath may not address the overall family's needs or involvement in care. B: Encouraging family members to stay longer does not necessarily address their specific needs or facilitate effective communication. C: Focusing solely on the legal next of kin may exclude important family members who also need support and involvement in the patient's care.
Question 6 of 9
Which scenarios contribute to effective handoff communicaabitribo.cno ma/tte csth ange of shift? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates effective handoff communication by involving key stakeholders (nephrology consultant physician), requesting specific patient updates, and collaborating on patient care tasks (placing a central line). This scenario promotes continuity of care and ensures important information is shared. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: High noise level disrupts communication and can lead to errors or omissions in handoff information. C: While using a standardized checklist can be beneficial, it alone does not guarantee effective communication if not utilized properly or if key information is missed. D: Conducting reports at the patient's bedside is beneficial for patient involvement but may not address the need for involving relevant healthcare providers like the consultant physician in the handoff process.
Question 7 of 9
Palliation care includes what goals? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Pain relief) because palliative care aims to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses. Pain relief is a crucial goal in palliative care to alleviate physical suffering. Nausea relief (B) is also commonly addressed in palliative care, but it is not a universal goal. Psychological support (C) is an important aspect of palliative care but is not always a primary goal. Withdrawal of life-support interventions (D) is not a goal of palliative care, as palliative care focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life, not hastening death.
Question 8 of 9
An intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion. Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.
Question 9 of 9
When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the emergency department (ED) nurse manager will plan to obtain adequate quantities of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaccine. Smallpox is a contagious and potentially deadly disease caused by the variola virus. The smallpox vaccine is the most effective way to prevent and control the spread of smallpox. By obtaining adequate quantities of the smallpox vaccine, the ED nurse manager can protect healthcare workers and the public from contracting the virus in case of a smallpox bioterrorism event. Atropine (B) is used to treat certain types of nerve agent poisoning, not smallpox. Antibiotics (C) are ineffective against viruses like smallpox. Whole blood (D) is not specifically needed for smallpox treatment.