ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.
Question 2 of 9
What is the nurse’s priority intervention when a terminally ill patient reports severe breakthrough pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescribed PRN opioid analgesic. This is the priority intervention because severe breakthrough pain requires immediate relief, and opioids are the most effective for managing severe pain in terminally ill patients. Warm compresses (A) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Reassessing pain after 2 hours (C) delays necessary relief. Distraction techniques (D) are not appropriate for severe breakthrough pain as they do not directly address the pain itself. Administering the prescribed opioid analgesic promptly is crucial for providing timely and effective pain management in this situation.
Question 3 of 9
An intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are being met?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion. Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse caring for a mechanically ventilated patient prepares to include which strategies to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia should be into the patient’s plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drain condensate from the ventilator tubing away from the patient. This is crucial to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia as stagnant condensate can harbor harmful bacteria. By draining it away from the patient, the risk of bacterial growth and subsequent aspiration is minimized. Elevating the head of the bed (choice B) helps prevent aspiration but is not specific to preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia. Instilling normal saline during suctioning (choice C) can increase the risk of infection. Performing regular oral care with chlorhexidine (choice D) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia.
Question 5 of 9
Palliation care includes what goals? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Pain relief) because palliative care aims to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses. Pain relief is a crucial goal in palliative care to alleviate physical suffering. Nausea relief (B) is also commonly addressed in palliative care, but it is not a universal goal. Psychological support (C) is an important aspect of palliative care but is not always a primary goal. Withdrawal of life-support interventions (D) is not a goal of palliative care, as palliative care focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life, not hastening death.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse has identified an increase in medication errors in the critical care unit over the past several months. What aspect of medication procedures should be evaluated first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed. Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures. Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial. Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.
Question 8 of 9
The spouse of a patient with terminal cancer visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about wedding anniversary plans for the next year. When the nurse asks about any concerns, the spouse says, 'I’m busy at work, but otherwise, things are fine.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving. The spouse's behavior of avoiding the reality of the terminal illness and focusing on future plans indicates maladaptive coping. The cheerfulness and denial suggest a lack of acceptance and processing of the impending loss. This can lead to emotional distress and hinder the grieving process. Choice B (Anxiety related to the complicated grieving process) is incorrect because the spouse's behavior does not exhibit signs of anxiety but rather avoidance and denial. Choice C (Caregiver role strain related to feeling overwhelmed) is incorrect as the spouse does not express feeling overwhelmed but instead deflects by focusing on work. Choice D (Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer) is incorrect because the spouse's behavior does not indicate hopelessness or lack of understanding about cancer, but rather an avoidance of facing the reality of the situation.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.