ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most common causative organism of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the causative organism of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy is crucial for midwives and healthcare providers. The correct answer is B) Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common pathogen responsible for acute pyelonephritis in pregnant women due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract and its ability to ascend the urinary tract. Streptococcus faecalis (Option A) is less commonly associated with pyelonephritis compared to E. coli and is more often linked to urinary tract infections. Proteus vulgaris (Option C) is also a less common cause of pyelonephritis and is more frequently associated with complicated urinary tract infections. Staphylococcus aureus (Option D) is not a typical organism involved in pyelonephritis, as it is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections. Educationally, knowing the specific pathogens involved in different types of infections is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment. In the case of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy, prompt recognition and appropriate management are vital to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Midwives and healthcare providers must be knowledgeable about the common causative organisms to provide effective care to pregnant women with urinary tract infections.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is associated with diazygotic twinning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and obstetrics, understanding factors related to twinning is crucial. In this question, the correct answer is C) Superfecundation, which is associated with dizygotic twinning. Superfecundation occurs when a woman releases multiple eggs during one ovulatory cycle and these eggs are fertilized by sperm from different acts of sexual intercourse within a short timeframe. This results in the conception of fraternal twins with different biological fathers. A) Conjoined twins are formed when a single fertilized egg fails to separate completely, leading to twins who are physically connected. This is not related to diazygotic twinning. B) Polyhydramnios refers to an excess of amniotic fluid in the amniotic sac, which can be caused by various factors but is not specifically associated with diazygotic twinning. D) Foetus compressus is a term used to describe a fetus that appears compressed due to various conditions such as oligohydramnios or uterine constraints, and is not directly linked to diazygotic twinning. Understanding these concepts is important in midwifery practice as it informs healthcare providers about the different types of twinning, their causes, and potential implications for pregnancy and childbirth. This knowledge enables midwives to provide comprehensive care and support to women expecting twins, ensuring optimal outcomes for both the mother and babies.
Question 3 of 5
Post-partum haemorrhage is likely to lead to acute renal failure due to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of post-partum hemorrhage leading to acute renal failure, the correct answer is C) Hypovolemia leading to tubular necrosis. Post-partum hemorrhage causes a significant loss of blood volume, resulting in hypovolemia. The decrease in blood volume leads to decreased perfusion of the kidneys, causing ischemic injury to the renal tubules, ultimately leading to acute renal failure. Option A) Sheehan's syndrome is incorrect as it is a condition characterized by pituitary necrosis following severe postpartum hemorrhage, leading to pituitary insufficiency, not acute renal failure. Option B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation is incorrect as it is a condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors, but it does not directly cause acute renal failure. Option D) Asherman's syndrome is incorrect as it is a condition characterized by intrauterine adhesions resulting from trauma to the endometrial lining, not directly related to acute renal failure. Understanding the pathophysiology of post-partum hemorrhage and its effects on renal function is crucial in midwifery practice. It highlights the importance of timely intervention to prevent complications such as acute renal failure. Educating midwives on the relationship between hypovolemia and renal function can help improve patient outcomes and ensure appropriate management of post-partum hemorrhage.
Question 4 of 5
Total loss of polarity and fundal dominance leads to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In midwifery practice, understanding the processes that lead to normal and abnormal labor is crucial. The total loss of polarity and fundal dominance in the uterus can lead to a condition known as precipitate labor. This is because without the proper coordination and control provided by polarity and fundal dominance, the contractions of the uterus can become too strong and frequent, leading to rapid progression of labor. Option A, "Precipitate labor," is the correct answer because it directly correlates with the scenario described in the question. It aligns with the pathophysiology of what happens when there is a total loss of polarity and fundal dominance in the uterus. Option B, "Colicky uterus," is incorrect because colicky pain typically refers to spasmodic, crampy pain rather than the sustained, strong contractions seen in precipitate labor. Option C, "Spontaneous labor," is incorrect because while the onset of labor is often spontaneous, the term does not specifically address the loss of polarity and fundal dominance causing rapid labor progression. Option D, "Cervical dystocia," is incorrect because cervical dystocia refers to a situation where the cervix fails to dilate or efface properly, which is different from the scenario described in the question regarding uterine contractions. Understanding the mechanisms of labor progression and the factors that can influence its course is essential for midwives to provide safe and effective care to their clients. By grasping these concepts, midwives can better assess and manage labor complications, ensuring optimal outcomes for both the birthing person and baby.
Question 5 of 5
The correct statement with regards to polyhydramnios is that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement regarding polyhydramnios is option C: Chronic polyhydramnios has a gradual onset as from 30 weeks. This is because chronic polyhydramnios typically develops later in pregnancy, around 30 weeks or later, as opposed to acute polyhydramnios which presents earlier. Option A is incorrect as acute polyhydramnios typically has a rapid onset rather than a gradual one starting at 20 weeks. Option B is incorrect because while multiple pregnancies can be a cause of polyhydramnios, it is more common in monochorionic twins rather than dizygotic twins. Option D is incorrect as in polyhydramnios, the abdomen tends to be more globular rather than ovoid due to the excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid. Educationally, understanding the timing and presentation of polyhydramnios is crucial for midwives and healthcare providers involved in prenatal care to monitor and manage potential complications for both the mother and the fetus. This knowledge helps in early identification and appropriate intervention to ensure the best possible outcomes for both.