Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae are the most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause in adults, Neisseria meningitidis is common in adolescents and young adults, and Haemophilus influenzae is more frequent in children. The other choices, Rubella virus (C) and Herpangina (D), are not bacterial agents known to cause meningitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is known to be the primary cause of peptic ulcers by colonizing the stomach lining and causing inflammation. It produces urease enzyme to neutralize stomach acid and has a flagellum for mobility. Escherichia coli (A) is mainly associated with foodborne illnesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) causes strep throat and skin infections. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (D) causes tuberculosis, a respiratory infection. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct choice for peptic ulcers based on its unique characteristics and pathogenicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod bacterium that forms terminal spores. It is commonly associated with deep tissue infections and can cause gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically form spores at the terminal end. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and Bacillus cereus (D) is more commonly associated with food poisoning. In this case, the presence of terminal spores along with the clinical presentation of a deep tissue infection points towards Clostridium perfringens as the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This is because Vibrio cholerae is a Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium known to cause cholera. The characteristic shape and the association with cholera make it the most likely causative agent in this case. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Shigella dysenteriae - Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes bacillary dysentery, not cholera. C: Salmonella typhi - Salmonella typhi is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes typhoid fever, not cholera. D: Campylobacter jejuni - Campylobacter jejuni is a Gram-negative bacterium that commonly causes foodborne gastroenteritis, not cholera.