ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most common buffer system in the body is the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the bicarbonate-carbonic system. This buffer system is crucial in maintaining the body's pH balance. When CO2 combines with water in the blood, it forms carbonic acid, which dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions. Bicarbonate acts as a base, accepting excess hydrogen ions to prevent a decrease in pH. Hemoglobin and plasma proteins primarily function as transport molecules, not as buffer systems. Phosphate buffer system is present in intracellular fluids, not as commonly in the body. The bicarbonate-carbonic system is the most prevalent buffer system in the blood and plays a vital role in regulating blood pH.
Question 2 of 5
A pregnant client with hypertension and cardiac dysrhythmias is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following imbalances should the nurse check for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypomagnesemia. 1. Hypertension and cardiac dysrhythmias can be exacerbated by low magnesium levels. 2. Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal heart rhythm and blood pressure. 3. Hypomagnesemia can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and worsen hypertension. 4. Metabolic acidosis (A) is not directly related to hypertension and dysrhythmias. 5. Hypernatremia (B) and hypercalcemia (D) are less likely to be associated with cardiac issues in this context. In summary, checking for hypomagnesemia is essential due to its direct impact on the client's hypertension and cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 3 of 5
The physician orders furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV STAT for an acutely fluid-overloaded patient. Why was the IV route likely chosen?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV is the route of choice for rapid administration. IV route allows for quick onset of action, crucial in acutely fluid-overloaded patients needing immediate diuresis. Option A is incorrect as furosemide can be given orally too. Option C is less relevant in this urgent situation where speed is key. Option D is also incorrect as the side effects are not determined by route of administration.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the ff signs may be revealed by a visual examination in a client with tonsillar infection if group A streptococci is the cause?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: White patches on the tonsils. Group A streptococci infection commonly presents with exudative tonsillitis, characterized by the presence of white patches or pus on the tonsils. This is due to the inflammatory response triggered by the bacteria. Hypertrophied tonsils (B), hemorrhage in the tonsils (C), and bleeding in the tonsils (D) are less likely to be visual signs of a streptococcal infection and are more indicative of other conditions or complications. Therefore, white patches on the tonsils are the most specific visual sign associated with group A streptococci tonsillar infection.
Question 5 of 5
How does nosocomial pneumonia occur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because nosocomial pneumonia occurs in a healthcare setting, such as hospitals or long-term care facilities, where patients are at increased risk due to exposure to pathogens and weakened immune systems. Choice B is incorrect as the timeframe of onset is not limited to within 48 hours of admission. Choice C is incorrect as nosocomial pneumonia can occur in both immunocompromised and immunocompetent hosts. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to pneumonia acquired outside of a healthcare setting.