ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment 9th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most appropriate medication indicated for reversing the anticoagulated effects of dabigatran etexilate (Pradaxa) is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Idarucizumab is a specific reversal agent for dabigatran, directly binding to dabigatran to neutralize its anticoagulant effects. 2. Vitamin K is ineffective for dabigatran reversal, as it mainly works on reversing the effects of vitamin K antagonist anticoagulants like warfarin. 3. Protamine sulfate is used for heparin reversal, not for direct thrombin inhibitor reversal like dabigatran. 4. Fondaparinux is a factor Xa inhibitor and not effective for reversing the effects of dabigatran.
Question 2 of 5
The earliest clinical manifestation of diabetic nephropathy is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Microalbuminuria. In diabetic nephropathy, the earliest clinical manifestation is the presence of microalbuminuria, which indicates early kidney damage. This occurs before significant changes in BUN, creatinine, or glomerular filtration rate are observed. Microalbuminuria is a key indicator for monitoring and early intervention in diabetic nephropathy. Incorrect Options: A: An elevation in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) - BUN levels may rise in later stages of kidney damage. B: An elevation in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CR) - These markers typically increase as kidney function declines, not in the early stages. C: A decreased glomerular filtration rate - GFR decreases as kidney function worsens, not typically an early sign in diabetic nephropathy.
Question 3 of 5
When examining the breast, the "tail of Spence" would be located:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The "tail of Spence" is an extension of breast tissue into the axilla. To locate it, visualize an imaginary line extending laterally from the breast towards the arm, crossing the anterior axillary fold. This is where the tail of Spence is found. A: Incorrect. The upper inner quadrant is closer to the sternum. B: Incorrect. The lower inner quadrant is below the nipple. C: Incorrect. The lower outer quadrant is towards the armpit but not in the axilla like the tail of Spence. Therefore, choice D is correct because the tail of Spence extends laterally across the anterior axillary fold.
Question 4 of 5
Where should the uterine fundus be palpable at 12 weeks?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus should be palpable at the level of the symphysis pubis. This is because the uterus rises approximately 1 cm above the symphysis pubis each week during the first trimester. By 12 weeks, it should be palpable at this level. Choice A (At the level of the umbilicus) is incorrect because the fundus is not expected to reach the level of the umbilicus until around 20 weeks. Choice C (Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus) is incorrect as this would typically occur around 16-18 weeks. Choice D (Below the symphysis pubis) is also incorrect because by 12 weeks, the fundus should have risen above the symphysis pubis.
Question 5 of 5
A 50-year-old male has a non-tender, enlarged scrotum. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following conditions:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrocele. A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac surrounding the testicle, causing scrotal enlargement without tenderness. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicle, presenting with pain and tenderness. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, also causing tenderness. Prostatitis (D) involves inflammation of the prostate gland, not related to scrotal enlargement. In this case, the lack of tenderness and presence of scrotal enlargement point towards a hydrocele as the likely condition.