ATI RN
Practice ATI B Exam Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 9
The mechanism of action of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), such as raloxifene (Evista), is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 9
Regarding phenytoin, all the following are true EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin's oral bioavailability varies due to formulation and absorption, a true statement. It's highly plasma protein-bound (~90%), not poorly, making that false and the exception. Hepatic enzyme inducers (e.g., rifampicin) enhance its metabolism, true. At higher doses, its elimination shifts to zero-order due to saturated metabolism, true. Half-life ranges from 12-36 hours, also true. High protein binding affects free drug levels, critical for therapeutic monitoring, especially in hypoalbuminemia.
Question 3 of 9
A male patient is undergoing chemotherapy may also be given the drug allopurinol (Zyloprim, Aloprim). Allopurinol inhibits the synthesis of uric acid. Concomitant administration of allopurinol prevents:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is primarily used to prevent gout and hyperuricemia, which are common side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of uric acid into the bloodstream. This can cause hyperuricemia, leading to gout or kidney stones. Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, an enzyme involved in uric acid production, thereby reducing uric acid levels. While myelosuppression and pancytopenia are concerns during chemotherapy, they are not directly addressed by allopurinol. Similarly, allopurinol does not inhibit cancer cell growth or replication.
Question 4 of 9
Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient who is about to be discharged, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that helps the body to remove excess salt and water, which can be useful in conditions like congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. The correct statement by the nurse is to "Be sure to change positions slowly and rise slowly after sitting or lying so as to prevent dizziness and possible fainting because of blood pressure changes." This instruction is important because diuretics like furosemide can cause changes in blood pressure, leading to dizziness and fainting when standing up quickly. By changing positions slowly, the patient can minimize the risk of experiencing these symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse plans medication education for a client who receives a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, has a dosing limit of one pill per 24 hours to avoid risks like prolonged erections or hypotension, a key safety point for education. Grapefruit juice increases sildenafil levels by inhibiting metabolism, not decreasing effects, risking intensified side effects. It's optimally taken 1 hour before sex, effective up to 4 hours-not 6-setting realistic timing expectations. Food, especially high-fat meals, delays absorption, so it's best on an empty stomach. The 24-hour limit ensures safe use, balancing efficacy with minimizing adverse effects, aligning with prescribing standards and making it the priority in client teaching.
Question 6 of 9
When administering the drug lithium, name one important side effect to watch for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One important side effect to watch for when administering the drug lithium is seizures. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, but it can lower the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures in some patients. It is crucial to monitor individuals taking lithium for any signs of seizures or seizure activity and to promptly address any such occurrences. Regular monitoring of lithium levels and adjusting the dosage as necessary can help minimize the risk of seizures in patients receiving this medication.
Question 7 of 9
Enrique who is under chemotherapy has the following CBC results: WBC 5000/mm3, RBC platelet 10,000/mm3. Which of the following is he at risk for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count of 10,000/mm3 is critically low and places Enrique at significant risk for bleeding. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and levels below 20,000/mm3 can lead to spontaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, gum bleeding, or internal hemorrhage. While a WBC count of 5000/mm3 is within the normal range, reducing the risk of infection, the extremely low platelet count is the primary concern. Angina is unrelated to platelet counts. Therefore, bleeding is the most immediate risk for Enrique.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is creating a plan of care for a patient with a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which is a potential nursing diagnosis for the patient taking antihypertensive medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is a potential nursing diagnosis for a patient taking antihypertensive medications. Many antihypertensive medications, especially certain classes like beta-blockers and diuretics, may cause adverse effects such as sexual dysfunction. These medications can impact a patient's libido, sexual arousal, and ability to achieve or maintain an erection, leading to sexual problems. Therefore, sexual dysfunction is an important consideration when caring for a patient with hypertension who is prescribed antihypertensive medications. It is crucial for the nurse to assess, monitor, and address any sexual dysfunction issues that may arise in the patient's care plan to optimize their overall well-being and quality of life.
Question 9 of 9
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department who was found drinking antifreeze while the father was working on their car. A primary component of antifreeze is ethylene glycol, an alcohol converted to toxic metabolites by the liver enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase. To prevent toxicity, the physician could administer ethanol, which would compete with ethylene glycol for the enzyme. In order to avoid administering ethanol to this patient, the physician could instead give which of the following drugs that would also prevent metabolism of ethylene glycol?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ethylene glycol toxicity requires blocking alcohol dehydrogenase. Fomepizole inhibits this enzyme, preventing toxic metabolite formation. Bicarbonate treats acidosis, not metabolism. Disulfiram blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase. Furosemide and Methanol (E) are irrelevant. Fomepizole's specificity avoids ethanol's risks in a child, ensuring safe detoxification.