The mechanism of action of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), such as raloxifene (Evista), is to

Questions 31

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ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Proctored Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

The mechanism of action of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), such as raloxifene (Evista), is to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: SERMs (e.g., raloxifene) slow bone resorption-mimicking estrogen on osteoclasts, per pharmacology-not raising calcium, inhibiting microtubules (cancer drugs), or directly boosting mass (bisphosphonates). Resorption slowdown preserves bone, per action.

Question 2 of 5

If a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should monitor for signs of angioedema which include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Angioedema is a potential adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. It is a serious condition involving swelling of the deeper layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, including the mucous membranes. Signs of angioedema can include swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat, which can lead to difficulty breathing (dyspnea) due to airway obstruction. It is important for the nurse to monitor for these signs and symptoms, as angioedema can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Vomiting, constipation, and epistaxis are not typical signs of angioedema associated with ACE inhibitors.

Question 3 of 5

Enrique who is under chemotherapy has the following CBC results: WBC 5000/mm3, RBC platelet 10,000/mm3. Which of the following is he at risk for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count of 10,000/mm3 is critically low and places Enrique at significant risk for bleeding. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and levels below 20,000/mm3 can lead to spontaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, gum bleeding, or internal hemorrhage. While a WBC count of 5000/mm3 is within the normal range, reducing the risk of infection, the extremely low platelet count is the primary concern. Angina is unrelated to platelet counts. Therefore, bleeding is the most immediate risk for Enrique.

Question 4 of 5

The patient has been receiving escitalopram (Lexapro) for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Unknown to the nurse, the patient has also been self-medicating with St. John's wort. The patient comes to the office with symptoms of hyperthermia and diaphoresis. Which statement best describes the result of the nurse's assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Escitalopram and St. John's wort, both serotonin boosters, risk serotonin syndrome-hyperthermia, diaphoresis-per pharmacology. St. John's toxicity alone (e.g., photosensitivity) doesn't fit. They're not safe together-interaction is known. Withdrawal lacks agitation context. Serotonin excess explains symptoms, a critical finding.

Question 5 of 5

A patient who reports severe seasonal allergies has been prescribed fluticasone (Flonase). The nurse providing medication information would collaborate with the prescriber if the patient makes which statement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Fluticasone risks immunosuppression with infections , requiring collaboration if exposed to a cold. Other statements (choices A, C, D) are irrelevant. B ensures safety, making it key.

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