ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery 6th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The maneuver used in management of shoulder dystocia whereby the midwife first identifies the posterior shoulder then tries to rotate it in the direction of the fetal chest is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of shoulder dystocia, the maneuver described in the question, which involves identifying the posterior shoulder and rotating it towards the fetal chest, is known as Rubin's maneuver. This maneuver aims to facilitate the delivery of the impacted shoulder and decrease the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. When considering the other options: A) Wood's maneuver involves rotating the anterior shoulder to dislodge it, which is different from the maneuver described in the question. C) The Zavanelli maneuver is a technique used in cases of shoulder dystocia where the baby's head is delivered but the shoulders are impacted, involving pushing the fetal head back into the birth canal for a Cesarean section. D) Reverse Wood's maneuver is not a recognized technique in the management of shoulder dystocia. Understanding the correct maneuver for managing shoulder dystocia is crucial for midwives and other healthcare providers involved in childbirth as it can significantly impact the outcome for both the mother and the baby. Proper training and knowledge of these maneuvers can help in effectively managing this obstetrical emergency and reducing associated risks.
Question 2 of 5
Caesarean section performed at 30 gestational weeks is BEST performed through a
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In obstetrics, the choice of incision type during a cesarean section is crucial for the safety of both the mother and the baby. In this scenario, performing a cesarean section at 30 gestational weeks necessitates a lower segment incision as the BEST approach. The lower segment incision, also known as a low transverse incision, is preferred at this gestational age because it offers better healing, reduced risk of uterine rupture in subsequent pregnancies, and decreased blood loss. Additionally, it provides easier access to the baby and decreases the likelihood of complications during the procedure. The other options are considered less optimal for various reasons. An upper segment incision is more commonly associated with increased blood loss and a higher risk of uterine rupture in future pregnancies. An extra-peritoneal incision is not typically used for cesarean sections as it may lead to increased maternal morbidity. A classical type of incision, involving a vertical incision on the upper part of the uterus, is reserved for specific scenarios like extreme prematurity or certain complications due to its association with increased maternal morbidity. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing the appropriate cesarean section incision type is vital for midwives and healthcare providers involved in obstetric care. It ensures safe delivery practices and optimal outcomes for both the mother and the baby, emphasizing the importance of evidence-based decision-making in midwifery practice.
Question 3 of 5
A Para 3+0 client who was scheduled for the fourth cesarean section comes in active labor. The MAIN complication of concern in this case is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the main complication of concern for a Para 3+0 client scheduled for her fourth cesarean section who presents in active labor is the rupture of the uterus. This is because with each successive cesarean section, the risk of uterine rupture increases due to the weakening of the uterine wall from previous surgical incisions. Rupture of the uterus can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage for both the mother and the fetus, necessitating immediate medical intervention and potentially resulting in adverse outcomes. Regarding the other options: A) Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall and is not directly related to the number of previous cesarean sections. C) Prolonged labor, while a concern in some cases, is not the main complication of concern in this scenario where a client with a history of multiple cesarean sections presents in active labor. D) Precipitate labor, which is rapid labor lasting less than 3 hours, is not the main concern in this case as the client is already in active labor and the risk of uterine rupture takes precedence due to her obstetric history. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the increased risks associated with multiple cesarean sections and the potential complications that can arise in such cases, emphasizing the critical role of healthcare providers in recognizing and managing these situations effectively to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 4 of 5
Which one of the following is a prerequisite for forceps delivery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of forceps delivery in midwifery, the correct answer is B) Ruptured membranes. Ruptured membranes are a prerequisite for forceps delivery because it reduces the risk of infection to both the mother and the baby during the procedure. Intact membranes increase the risk of introducing bacteria into the birth canal, which can lead to complications. Option A) Intact membranes is incorrect because, as mentioned, ruptured membranes are necessary for a safer procedure. Option C) Cephalic presentation is not a prerequisite for forceps delivery, although it may make the procedure easier in some cases. Option D) Full urinary bladder is not a prerequisite for forceps delivery and, in fact, an empty bladder is preferred to provide more space for the procedure. Educationally, understanding the prerequisites for different delivery methods is crucial for midwives to ensure safe and effective care for both the mother and the baby. It highlights the importance of proper assessment and preparation before undertaking any intervention during childbirth.
Question 5 of 5
The term persistent occipito-posterior position indicates that the occiput
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Fails to rotate forward. In the persistent occipito-posterior position, the occiput of the baby fails to rotate forward to the front of the mother's pelvis during labor. This position can lead to prolonged and difficult labor, as the baby's head is not in the optimal position for birth. Option B) Escapes under the symphysis pubis is incorrect because this describes a condition where the baby's head slips under the pubic bone, which is not specifically related to the occipito-posterior position. Option C) Rotates forward always is incorrect because in the case of persistent occipito-posterior position, the occiput does not rotate forward as it should for an easier delivery. Option D) Reaches the pelvic floor first is incorrect because it does not specifically address the rotational aspect of the occipito-posterior position. Understanding the positions of the baby during labor is crucial for midwives and healthcare professionals to anticipate and manage complications during childbirth. Recognizing the signs of persistent occipito-posterior position allows for timely interventions to potentially prevent further complications and ensure a safe delivery for both the mother and baby.