The major limitation to the use of benzodiazepines in anxiety is:

Questions 52

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Chapter 12 principles of pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

The major limitation to the use of benzodiazepines in anxiety is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, the major limitation to the use of benzodiazepines in anxiety is dependence, which is why option C is correct. Benzodiazepines have a high potential for tolerance and dependence, leading to withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation. This can result in patients requiring higher doses over time to achieve the same therapeutic effect, increasing the risk of addiction. Option A, no antidote being available if overdose toxicity occurs, is not the major limitation of benzodiazepines in anxiety. In fact, there is an antidote called flumazenil that can be used to reverse benzodiazepine toxicity. Option B, cardiovascular depression being common, is not a typical limitation of benzodiazepines. While they can cause some central nervous system depression, leading to effects like drowsiness, they are not known for causing significant cardiovascular depression. Option D, increased risk of respiratory depression, is more commonly associated with opioid medications rather than benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines can cause some respiratory depression, especially in cases of overdose or when used in combination with other central nervous system depressants, but it is not their major limitation in the treatment of anxiety. Understanding the limitations and potential risks associated with benzodiazepines is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications for anxiety. Education on the risks of dependence and the importance of monitoring patients for signs of tolerance and withdrawal is essential for safe and effective pharmacological treatment.

Question 2 of 5

Nocturnal enuresis is treated with imipramine but not fluoxetine because

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Imipramine possesses anticholinergic effects but fluoxetine does not. This is the most appropriate option because imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, has anticholinergic properties that can cause relaxation of the bladder outlet, thus reducing the frequency of bedwetting episodes in nocturnal enuresis. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), does not possess these anticholinergic effects and is not indicated for the treatment of enuresis. Option A) Imipramine inducing insomnia while fluoxetine induces sedation is an incorrect choice because the mechanism of action related to sleep disturbances is not the primary reason for the different treatment outcomes in enuresis. Option B) Imipramine being safer than fluoxetine is also incorrect as the safety profiles of these medications differ based on individual patient characteristics and potential side effects, rather than solely determining their efficacy in treating enuresis. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological principles behind drug selection for specific conditions like enuresis is crucial for healthcare professionals. Knowing the unique properties of different medications allows for appropriate treatment selection based on their mechanisms of action and potential side effects. This knowledge ensures safe and effective pharmacological interventions for patients with various medical conditions.

Question 3 of 5

Cross Match: Buspirone

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is a unique anxiolytic medication that acts as a partial agonist at the 5HT1A receptor subtype. This mechanism of action is crucial in its therapeutic effects for anxiety disorders. Option C, "Agonist/Partial 5HT1A agonist," is the correct answer because it accurately describes how buspirone functions by modulating serotonin receptors in the brain, leading to anxiolytic effects. Option A, "Norepinephrine serotonin reuptake inhibitor," is incorrect because buspirone does not primarily affect norepinephrine reuptake. Option B, "Inhibitor of dopamine & NE reuptake," is incorrect as buspirone does not have significant effects on dopamine reuptake. Option D, "Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor," is also incorrect because buspirone does not primarily act by inhibiting serotonin reuptake like SSRIs. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological principles of medications like buspirone is essential for healthcare professionals, especially in fields like psychiatry and primary care where anxiety disorders are prevalent. Knowing the exact mechanism of action of medications helps in prescribing the most appropriate treatment for patients based on their symptoms and individual needs.

Question 4 of 5

All the following uses are shared by both aspirin and celecoxib EXCEPT

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Prophylaxis against myocardial infarction. Aspirin and celecoxib are both nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), but they work through different mechanisms. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, which reduces the production of prostaglandins involved in inflammation and pain. On the other hand, celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 enzyme, which is responsible for inflammation and pain without affecting COX-1 enzyme that protects the stomach lining. Option A is incorrect because both aspirin and celecoxib are used as anti-inflammatory agents in chronic inflammatory musculoskeletal disorders due to their ability to reduce inflammation and pain. Option C is incorrect as both drugs are used to manage acute pain effectively. Option D is incorrect as both aspirin and celecoxib are used to relieve primary dysmenorrhea, which is menstrual pain. In an educational context, understanding the differences in the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about medication choices for their patients. This knowledge helps in providing optimal care by selecting the most appropriate treatment based on the patient's condition and needs, considering factors such as efficacy, safety, and side effects associated with each drug.

Question 5 of 5

The following agent/s is/are used in transient ischemic attacks

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology principles related to transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), the correct answer A) Low dose aspirin is appropriate due to its antiplatelet effects. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can help prevent clot formation and reduce the risk of TIA recurrence. Option B) Warfarin is an anticoagulant used in conditions like atrial fibrillation where there is a risk of clot formation in the heart. However, in the case of TIAs, antiplatelet agents like aspirin are preferred over anticoagulants. Option C) Heparin is also an anticoagulant, typically used in acute settings like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, not for long-term prevention of TIAs. The educational context here emphasizes the importance of understanding the mechanisms of action of different pharmacological agents and their specific indications. In the case of TIAs, the goal is to prevent platelet aggregation and clot formation in the cerebral vasculature, making antiplatelet agents like low dose aspirin the preferred treatment option. Students should grasp the rationale behind choosing aspirin over other anticoagulants in TIA management to make informed clinical decisions.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions