The main virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis plays a crucial role in its virulence by preventing phagocytosis, allowing the bacteria to evade the host's immune system. This leads to increased survival and colonization in the host. Choice B: The beta lactamase is incorrect because it is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics and does not directly contribute to the virulence of Neisseria meningitidis. Choice C: The erythrogenic toxin is incorrect as this toxin is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Neisseria meningitidis. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as the polysaccharide capsule is indeed a key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas bacteria are known to produce yellow-green pigment and a characteristic odor, specifically in meat-peptone agar. This is due to the production of pyoverdin pigment by Pseudomonas. Other choices like Escherichia, Proteus, Klebsiella, and Azotobacter do not typically produce yellow-green pigment or have a characteristic odor in meat-peptone agar. Therefore, based on the specific characteristics mentioned in the question, Pseudomonas is the most appropriate choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Thin, pale pink microorganisms with spiral coils suggest Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. 2. Staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method highlights the characteristic morphology of T. pallidum. 3. Syphilis presents with various stages and symptoms, correlating with the lymph node involvement. 4. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, presenting with different clinical features. 5. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia species, which do not match the description. 6. Trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma species, which have distinct morphology and staining properties.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria species. Gram staining differentiates bacteria based on cell wall composition. Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane, making them appear pink under the microscope. Streptococcus species (B) are Gram-positive cocci with a thick peptidoglycan layer, appearing purple. Bacillus (C) and Clostridium (D) species are Gram-positive rods, not Gram-negative cocci. Thus, the correct answer is A because Neisseria species are the only Gram-negative cocci among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic passive immunity. Antibotulinic serum contains pre-formed antibodies against the botulinum toxin, providing immediate protection to the patient. This is passive immunity as the patient does not produce their antibodies but receives them externally. Choice B is incorrect as botulism is not an infection, so the patient does not develop infection immunity. Choice C is incorrect because active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to an antigen, which is not the case here. Choice D is incorrect as antimicrobic immunity relates to protection against microbes, not toxins like in botulism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci that is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it the most likely causative agent for the wound infection. Catalase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme catalase, which helps break down hydrogen peroxide. Coagulase-positive bacteria produce the enzyme coagulase, which causes the plasma proteins to clot. Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause a wound infection. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative, and Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative, so they are less likely to be the causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, affecting the visual nerve. It is a well-documented side effect of this drug. Isoniazid (Choice A) is associated with peripheral neuropathy, not optic neuritis. Kanamycin (Choice C) is known for its side effects on the inner ear, causing hearing loss. Rifampicin (Choice D) is not typically associated with optic neuritis but can cause other adverse effects like hepatitis. By process of elimination and knowledge of drug side effects, Ethambutol is the most likely culprit.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.