ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
The main feature of Hyperemesis gravidarum is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Step 2: Inability to eat or retain food all through is a hallmark feature due to excessive vomiting. Step 3: This leads to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and weight loss. Step 4: Pallor, cyanosis, weakness, and smaller fundal height are not specific to hyperemesis gravidarum. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to the primary symptom of excessive vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum, while the other choices are not specific to this condition.
Question 2 of 5
Which one of the following therapies is the MOST incorporated in the management of clients with gestational diabetes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Short acting insulin. In gestational diabetes, short acting insulin is preferred as it provides immediate control over blood sugar levels after meals. This is crucial in managing the condition to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Therapeutic diet alone (choice A) may not be sufficient to control blood sugar levels, while long-acting insulin (choice B) may not provide the rapid response needed after meals. Oral hypoglycemics (choice C) are generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, short acting insulin is the most appropriate therapy for managing gestational diabetes effectively.
Question 3 of 5
The commonest major cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions. Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage. Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.
Question 4 of 5
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an excessive amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000 to 3000 ml. This is because amniotic fluid serves important functions in protecting the fetus and aiding in fetal movements. Having an excessively high volume can lead to complications such as preterm labor, fetal malpresentation, and placental abruption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not fall within the range typically used to diagnose polyhydramnios. A: 1500 ml and C: 1900 ml are below the threshold, while B: 2500 ml is at the lower end but still not exceeding the diagnostic range for polyhydramnios.
Question 5 of 5
In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and sometimes mild edema. This indicates that the mother does have complaints, albeit they may be mild. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because in mild preeclampsia, the mother does have complaints, so option A is not true. Options C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.