ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The main diagnostic feature of puerperal pyrexia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions. Puerperal pyrexia is defined as fever occurring after childbirth. The key diagnostic feature is the presence of fever (≥ 38°C) on three consecutive occasions, indicating a persistent infection. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the need for consecutive occasions. Choice C is incorrect as it extends the duration of fever to three weeks, which is too long for typical puerperal pyrexia. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "occasionally" instead of "consecutively," which is not indicative of a consistent fever pattern seen in puerperal pyrexia.
Question 2 of 5
Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Klumpke's palsy. Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy, characterized by paralysis of the lower arm and hand muscles. This occurs due to damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus. Erb's palsy (choice A) involves C5 & C6 nerve roots, causing weakness in the shoulder and upper arm. Phrenic injury (choice C) affects the diaphragm, leading to breathing difficulties. Radial palsy (choice D) results from damage to the radial nerve, causing wrist drop and weakness in forearm muscles. Klumpke's palsy specifically matches the description of injury to nerve roots C8 & T1.
Question 3 of 5
The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep client well hydrated. Encouraging plenty of fluids helps prevent dehydration, maintain adequate urine output, and promote flushing of the urinary tract to prevent infections, all crucial for postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma. Proper hydration also supports overall health and aids in the healing process. B: Maintain proper fluid balance - While important, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated to support healing. C: Facilitate proper healing - Proper hydration does facilitate healing, but the primary aim is to keep the client well hydrated. D: Control growth of organisms - While hydration can help in preventing infections, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated.
Question 4 of 5
The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.
Question 5 of 5
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this congenital heart defect, a single large blood vessel arises from the heart instead of the normal two separate vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery). This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygen supply to the body. This condition is incompatible with life, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation are also congenital heart defects but do not typically result in immediate death after birth. Pulmonary stenosis obstructs blood flow to the lungs, while aortic coarctation causes narrowing of the aorta. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta but usually closes shortly after birth. Failure of closure can lead to health issues, but it is not typically a cause of immediate death after birth.