ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The main diagnostic feature of puerperal pyrexia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions. Puerperal pyrexia is defined as fever occurring after childbirth. The key diagnostic feature is the presence of fever (≥ 38°C) on three consecutive occasions, indicating a persistent infection. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the need for consecutive occasions. Choice C is incorrect as it extends the duration of fever to three weeks, which is too long for typical puerperal pyrexia. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "occasionally" instead of "consecutively," which is not indicative of a consistent fever pattern seen in puerperal pyrexia.
Question 2 of 9
Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis). Summary: - Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility. - Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function. - Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.
Question 3 of 9
The main diagnostic feature of puerperal pyrexia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions. Puerperal pyrexia is defined as fever occurring after childbirth. The key diagnostic feature is the presence of fever (≥ 38°C) on three consecutive occasions, indicating a persistent infection. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the need for consecutive occasions. Choice C is incorrect as it extends the duration of fever to three weeks, which is too long for typical puerperal pyrexia. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "occasionally" instead of "consecutively," which is not indicative of a consistent fever pattern seen in puerperal pyrexia.
Question 4 of 9
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery. 2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation. 3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem. B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication. D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
Obstructed labor MAINLY results due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cephalopelvic disproportion. This condition occurs when the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis during labor. This leads to obstructed labor, causing complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal exhaustion (A) may occur as a result of prolonged labor but is not the primary cause of obstructed labor. Microsomic fetus (C) refers to a small baby and would not typically cause obstructed labor. Fetal exsanguination (D) is the loss of blood from the fetus and is not a common cause of obstructed labor. Cephalopelvic disproportion is the most common reason for obstructed labor as it directly affects the passage of the baby through the birth canal.
Question 6 of 9
The factor indicative of an abnormal labour pattern on vaginal examination is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: In normal labor, the cervix undergoes effacement and dilation. Step 2: A short and thin cervical canal indicates progression towards labor. Step 3: Long and thick cervical canal suggests a delay in labor progress. Step 4: Choice C, short and thin cervical canal, is indicative of abnormal labor. Summary: A, B, and D do not reflect changes in the cervix seen in labor, making them incorrect choices.
Question 7 of 9
Mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted through respiratory droplets, not just during labor. Step 2: Mother with active TB can transmit the bacteria to the child during childbirth. Step 3: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission never occurs during labor is false. Summary: Choice B is correct because TB transmission can occur during labor, making Choice A incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant.
Question 8 of 9
Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy due to damage to the lower brachial plexus. This results in weakness of the hand and forearm muscles. Erb's palsy is from injury to C5-C6 roots causing upper brachial plexus damage. Phrenic injury affects the diaphragm due to C3-C5 roots. Radial palsy involves the radial nerve, typically from injury at the spiral groove of the humerus. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly correlates with the specific nerve roots affected in Klumpke's palsy.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with suspected Cushings syndrome is being evaluated to establish the diagnosis and cause. Patients with an adrenal tumor typically will demonstrate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low ACTH and low cortisol. In a patient with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor itself produces excess cortisol independently of ACTH regulation. Therefore, ACTH levels are low due to negative feedback from high cortisol levels. As a result, cortisol levels are high, while ACTH levels are low. Explanation for other choices: B: Low ACTH and high cortisol - This suggests primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), not Cushing's syndrome. C: High ACTH and low cortisol - This suggests secondary adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing's syndrome. D: High ACTH and high cortisol - This is contradictory and not physiologically possible in the context of an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.