ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The main clinical feature in hyperemesis gravidarum is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Question 2 of 5
For questions 91 & 92, match the following with the statements in column A by indicating the correct number
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Precipitate labor. Precipitate labor refers to a rapid labor and delivery process. It is matched with the statement in column A because it is associated with a sudden and quick progression of labor, leading to a rapid delivery of the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Colicky uterus - This term is not related to rapid labor but rather refers to uterine contractions that are painful and intermittent. B: Constriction ring dystocia - This term describes a condition where there is a tight band around the uterus, causing difficulty in the delivery process, which is different from the rapid progression seen in precipitate labor. D: Cervical dystocia - This term refers to a condition where there are issues with the dilation or effacement of the cervix, not directly related to the speed of labor as in precipitate labor.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake helps decrease ammonia production. Excessive ammonia leads to neurological symptoms. Lactulose (choice A) is correct for hepatic encephalopathy as it helps eliminate ammonia through the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic and not indicated for hepatic encephalopathy. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sleep aid and not relevant to managing ammonia accumulation. In summary, choice C is correct because it directly targets the underlying issue of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy, while the other choices do not address this specific concern.
Question 4 of 5
Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to severe bleeding during childbirth, posing high risks to both the mother and the baby. This condition occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix dilates during labor. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. Choice B is incorrect as bleeding is primarily due to the abnormal placement of the placenta, not from pathological processes. Choice C is incorrect as bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia.
Question 5 of 5
Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from a source other than the placenta, such as the cervix or vagina, before delivery. Intraplacental haemorrhage (choice A) refers to bleeding within the placenta itself, not outside it. Intrapartum haemorrhage (choice B) occurs during labor and delivery, not before. Preterm haemorrhage (choice D) is not a specific term used to describe antepartum bleeding. Therefore, the correct term for antepartum bleeding from a non-placental source is extraplacental haemorrhage.
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