The LPN is caring for a patient in the preoperative period who, even after verbalizing concerns and having questions answered, states, “I know I am not going to wake up after surgery.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The LPN is caring for a patient in the preoperative period who, even after verbalizing concerns and having questions answered, states, “I know I am not going to wake up after surgery.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the registered nurse. This is the best course of action as the LPN should escalate the situation to a higher level of care by involving the registered nurse who can further assess the patient's concerns and provide appropriate interventions. A. Reassuring the patient may not address the underlying fear and may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety. B. Providing statistics about surgery death rates may further escalate the patient's fears and anxiety, causing more harm than good. D. Involving the family to comfort the patient may not address the patient's specific concerns and may not be within the family's scope of understanding or expertise to effectively address the situation. Informing the registered nurse allows for a more comprehensive assessment and appropriate intervention to address the patient's fears and concerns in a holistic manner.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following measures will not help correct the patient’s condition

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Providing oral care does not directly address fluid balance or hydration status. 2. Oral care focuses on maintaining oral hygiene and preventing infections. 3. Choices A, B, and D all involve fluid intake to address dehydration. 4. Offering large amounts of fluid, enteral or parenteral fluids, and small volumes at frequent intervals all aim to correct the patient's condition by replenishing lost fluids. Summary: Choice C is incorrect because oral care does not directly address the patient's dehydration. Choices A, B, and D are better options as they focus on fluid replacement to correct the patient's condition.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate

Question 4 of 9

A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.

Question 5 of 9

A narcotic analgesic is ordered for postoperative pain. Why are narcotics given in low doses to the laryngectomy patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because narcotics in high doses can depress the respiratory rate and cough reflex, which can be especially dangerous for a laryngectomy patient due to the risk of airway compromise. Low doses can provide pain relief without significant respiratory depression. Choices B and C are incorrect because narcotics typically do not increase respiratory tract secretions or cause stomal edema. Choice D is incorrect because while narcotics can potentially cause addiction, this is not the primary reason for giving low doses to laryngectomy patients.

Question 6 of 9

When administering a blood transfusion to a client with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse monitors closely for evidence of a transfusion reaction. Shortly after the transfusion begins, the client complains of chest pain, nausea and itching. When urticarial, tachycardia, and hypotension develop, the nurse stops the transfusion and notifies the physician. The nurse suspects which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I (immediate, anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reaction. In this scenario, the client experiences symptoms shortly after the transfusion starts, such as chest pain, nausea, itching, urticaria, tachycardia, and hypotension, which are indicative of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. Type I reactions involve the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils, leading to the symptoms described. The nurse's prompt action of stopping the transfusion and notifying the physician aligns with managing this type of reaction. Incorrect choices: B: Type II (cytolytic, cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction - This type of reaction involves antibodies targeting specific cells, leading to their destruction. The symptoms described in the scenario are not consistent with this type of reaction. C: Type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity reaction - This type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues, causing

Question 7 of 9

20-year old Mr. Ang fell off from his horse, and sustained a lft hip fracture. Buck’s extension traction is applied. The following statements are true about Buck’s extension traction except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children due to their growing bones. Instead, it is used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - A: Correct - Buck's extension traction is indeed used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - B: Correct - Buck's extension traction is applied by an orthopedic surgeon under aseptic conditions using wires and pins. - C: Correct - The pulling force in Buck's extension traction is indeed transmitted to the musculoskeletal structures. Therefore, the incorrect option is D as Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children.

Question 8 of 9

A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following patients should the nurse monitors because of increased risk for surgical complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's Body Mass Index (BMI) indicates obesity, putting them at higher risk for surgical complications. Obesity is associated with increased risks of infections, delayed wound healing, respiratory issues, and cardiovascular problems post-surgery. Monitoring this patient closely is crucial. Choice A is less likely to have increased surgical complications due to age and condition. Choice C, a 12-year-old, is less likely to have significant surgical complications compared to adults. Choice D, a 17-year-old with gallstones, may have risks but the BMI of the patient in choice B indicates a higher risk.

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