ATI RN
medical microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The lipopolysaccharides of gram negative bacteria consists of all the following types except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protoplast. Lipopolysaccharides of Gram-negative bacteria consist of three main components: O-specific polysaccharide chain, R-specific polysaccharide chain, and Lipid A. Protoplast is not a component of lipopolysaccharides. O-specific polysaccharide chain is responsible for serotype specificity, R-specific polysaccharide chain varies among strains, and Lipid A is the endotoxin component. Protoplast refers to a bacterial cell devoid of a cell wall, which is not a component of lipopolysaccharides.
Question 2 of 9
A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.
Question 3 of 9
The female reproductive system includes the following organs/structures:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the female reproductive system consists of the uterus, ovaries, vagina, and fallopian tubes. The ovaries produce eggs, the fallopian tubes transport the eggs to the uterus, where fertilization can occur. The vagina is the birth canal and where sperm is deposited during intercourse. The uterus is where a fertilized egg implants and a fetus develops. Choice A is incorrect because it includes the kidneys, which are part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because it includes the bladder and duodenum, which are part of the urinary and digestive systems, respectively, not the reproductive system. Choice C is incorrect because it includes the bladder and ureter, which are part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system.
Question 4 of 9
The transcription is...
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because transcription is the process in which messenger RNA transcripts are produced from DNA. During transcription, a specific segment of DNA is transcribed into mRNA by RNA polymerase. Choice A is incorrect because translation, not transcription, involves converting mRNA into protein. Choice B is incorrect as it describes DNA replication, not transcription. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to translation, where polypeptides are synthesized from mRNA. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process of transcription.
Question 5 of 9
The AST reaction (anti-streptolysin titer):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the AST reaction, or anti-streptolysin titer, is used in the diagnostic of post-streptococcal sequelae, such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. This test measures the level of antibodies produced by the body in response to Streptolysin O, a toxin produced by Group A Streptococcus bacteria. It helps in identifying if a patient has had a recent Streptococcus infection that could lead to these complications. A: Incorrect. The AST reaction does not require urine samples, but rather blood samples. C: Incorrect. The AST reaction specifically targets antibodies produced in response to Group A Streptococcus. D: Incorrect. The AST reaction does not directly identify isolated streptococci but rather measures the body's immune response to Streptolysin O.
Question 6 of 9
The bacitracin sensitivity test demonstrates
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The bacitracin sensitivity test is used to differentiate between different types of streptococci. Group A streptococci are sensitive to bacitracin, which means they will show inhibition around the bacitracin disk. This sensitivity is a characteristic feature of group A streptococci and helps in their identification. Staphylococci, pneumococci, and intestinal bacteria do not exhibit this sensitivity to bacitracin. Therefore, the correct answer is D: group A streptococci.
Question 7 of 9
The bacterial structure that protects against desiccation is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Endospore. Endospores are highly resistant structures formed by certain bacterial species to withstand harsh conditions like desiccation. They contain a tough outer layer that protects the bacterial DNA and other essential components. Capsules (choice A) provide protection against host immune responses but not specifically against desiccation. Flagella (choice B) are used for bacterial motility. Pili (choice D) are involved in bacterial adhesion but do not protect against desiccation. Therefore, endospores are the most suitable choice for protecting against desiccation.
Question 8 of 9
CDC stands for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The CDC is a U.S. government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety. The correct answer is the only choice that accurately reflects the agency's purpose. Choice B (Children's Disease Center) is incorrect because the CDC's scope is not limited to children's health. Choice C (Central Disaster Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC primarily focuses on disease prevention. Choice D (Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC's main focus is not on drug evaluation. Thus, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the CDC's mission and responsibilities.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has roundish ulcers on his face, inflammation and enlargement of lymph nodes. These symptoms turned up as a result of mosquito bites. Laboratory examination of discharge from the ulcers revealed unicellular aflagellar organisms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Dermatotropic leishmaniasis. The roundish ulcers, lymph node enlargement, and presence of unicellular aflagellar organisms in discharge are characteristic of this parasitic infection transmitted by sandfly bites. Leishmania parasites cause skin lesions and lymphadenopathy. Toxoplasmosis (B) presents with flu-like symptoms, not ulcers. Scabies (C) causes intense itching and burrows, not ulcers. Trypanosomiasis (D) presents with fever, not ulcers. In this case, the symptoms align closely with Dermatotropic leishmaniasis, making it the most likely diagnosis.