ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a white blood cell count of 3000 mm3. Select the nurse’s best action.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report these results to the health care provider immediately. A low white blood cell count (3000 mm3) in a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) could indicate a potentially serious condition called agranulocytosis, which is a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition can increase the risk of infection and is a known side effect of clozapine. Reporting these results to the health care provider immediately is crucial for prompt evaluation and appropriate management, such as discontinuing the medication or adjusting the dosage. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Giving the next dose as prescribed is risky without addressing the low white blood cell count first. C: Giving aspirin and forcing fluids is unrelated to the low white blood cell count and could worsen the situation. D: Repeating the laboratory test may delay necessary intervention for the potentially serious condition of agranulocytosis.
Question 2 of 5
When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the 78-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal. Older adults have a higher risk of altered response to anesthesia due to age-related changes in organ function, decreased metabolism, and increased sensitivity to medications. The other choices are less likely to have altered responses: A is young and healthy, B has stopped smoking which can reduce anesthesia risks, and C is a young patient with a routine procedure. Overall, age and complexity of the surgical procedure are key factors in determining the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with primary hypertension is prescribed drug therapy for the first time. The patient asks how long drug therapy will be needed. Which answer by the nurse is the correct response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Primary hypertension is a chronic condition. 2. Drug therapy for primary hypertension aims to control blood pressure long-term. 3. Lifestyle changes may help but often medication is needed. 4. Discontinuing medication can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. 5. Therefore, therapy for high blood pressure is usually lifelong. Summary: A: Incorrect, as 3 months is too short for chronic hypertension management. B: Incorrect, as a year may not be sufficient for long-term control. C: Incorrect, as symptom disappearance doesn't indicate resolved hypertension. D: Correct, as lifelong therapy is often necessary for primary hypertension.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has had recent prosthetic heart valve surgery and is receiving anticoagulant therapy. While monitoring the patient’s laboratory work, the nurse interprets that the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) level of 2.5 indicates that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the patient’s warfarin dose is at therapeutic levels. An INR level of 2.5 is within the target range for patients on anticoagulant therapy, indicating that the warfarin dose is effective in preventing clot formation. A: Incorrect. An INR of 2.5 is considered therapeutic, so the patient is receiving enough warfarin. C: Incorrect. INR does not reflect heparin levels, so the intravenous heparin dose cannot be determined from this value. D: Incorrect. Similar to choice C, INR does not reflect heparin levels, so the status of the intravenous heparin dose cannot be determined.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin (Rifadin) as part of antitubercular therapy. The patient is currently taking oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oral contraceptives are less effective while the patient is taking rifampin. Rifampin induces hepatic enzymes, which can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, leading to decreased contraceptive efficacy. This can result in breakthrough bleeding and potential contraceptive failure. It is important to advise the patient to use additional non-hormonal contraceptive methods while on rifampin therapy to prevent unintended pregnancy. Incorrect answer explanations: A: Women do not have a high risk for thrombophlebitis while on rifampin. Rifampin is not known to directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis. B: A higher dose of rifampin is not necessary because of the contraceptive. Rifampin does not interact with oral contraceptives in a way that requires a higher dose. D: The incidence of adverse effects is not necessarily greater if the two drugs are taken together. Adverse effects are more related to individual drug reactions rather than a