ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The knows that a positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on; a.A history of high-risk sexual behaviors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a positive diagnosis for HIV infection is confirmed through laboratory testing, specifically the ELISA and Western blot tests. These tests detect the presence of HIV antibodies in the blood, providing definitive evidence of the infection. Choice B is incorrect as weight loss and fever are symptoms but not diagnostic criteria. Choice C is incorrect as opportunistic infections are a consequence of HIV, not the diagnostic criteria. Choice D is incomplete and irrelevant. In summary, the key to diagnosing HIV is through positive laboratory tests, not just based on symptoms or associated infections.
Question 2 of 5
Severe and extensive hemolysis causes which of the ff?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe and extensive hemolysis leads to the release of large amounts of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing hemoglobinemia. This can result in hemoglobinuria, leading to acute renal failure and ultimately shock. Shock is the correct answer as it is a severe consequence of extensive hemolysis. Leg ulcers (A) may occur in conditions like peripheral arterial disease. Priapism (C) is unrelated to hemolysis. Compromised growth (D) is not a common consequence of hemolysis.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted for a spelenectomy. What problem is the nurse aware that could develop?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. After a splenectomy, the client is at risk for infection due to the spleen's role in the immune system. Without the spleen, the body's ability to fight infections is reduced. Infections can be serious and life-threatening. B: Urinary retention is not a typical complication of a splenectomy. C: Congestive heart failure is not directly related to a splenectomy. D: Viral hepatitis is not a common complication of a splenectomy.
Question 4 of 5
for pain management. When applying a new system, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Pressing the system in place for 30 to 60 seconds helps ensure proper adhesion and absorption of the medication. This step is crucial for the effectiveness of the pain management system. B: Choosing a site on the lower torso is not necessary for applying the system. The site selection should be based on guidelines and patient preference. C: Shaving the application site is not recommended unless specifically indicated. It is not a standard step for applying a pain management system. D: Applying the system immediately after removal from a package may not allow the adhesive to fully activate, affecting its efficacy. It is important to follow the recommended steps for proper application.
Question 5 of 5
A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticipatory grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client's symptoms, such as weight loss, fatigue, and diagnosis of gallbladder cancer, indicate a serious health condition that may lead to emotional distress. Anticipatory grieving involves feelings of loss and sadness related to an anticipated loss, such as the diagnosis of cancer. The client may experience fear, anxiety, and sadness due to the potential impact of the illness on their life. Choice B (Disturbed body image) is incorrect because the client's symptoms are more indicative of a serious health concern rather than body image issues. Choice C (Impaired swallowing) is incorrect as the symptoms described do not suggest difficulty with swallowing. Choice D (Chronic low self-esteem) is also incorrect as the symptoms are more likely related to physical health issues rather than self-esteem concerns.