The key diagnostic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:

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Question 1 of 9

The key diagnostic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: presence of metachromatic granules. This is because Corynebacterium diphtheriae is known for containing metachromatic granules, which are characteristic of this species. These granules can be observed under a microscope and aid in the identification of the bacteria. Explanation of other choices: A: formation of spores - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not form spores. Spore formation is more commonly seen in bacteria such as Bacillus and Clostridium species. C: production of coagulase - Coagulase production is a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus, not Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D: beta-hemolysis on blood agar - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not exhibit beta-hemolysis on blood agar. This type of hemolysis is more typical of Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 2 of 9

Which bacteria produce endotoxins that can cause septic shock?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa all produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can trigger a systemic inflammatory response if released into the bloodstream. E. coli and Salmonella are common causes of bacterial infections that can lead to septic shock, while P. aeruginosa is a known opportunistic pathogen that can produce endotoxins. Therefore, all three bacteria can cause septic shock by releasing endotoxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually can produce endotoxins that contribute to the development of septic shock.

Question 3 of 9

How is detected viral multiplication in cell culture

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (A and B both). In viral multiplication, the presence of a specific cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell culture indicates viral replication. This is detected visually through changes in cell morphology. Additionally, immunofluorescence detection methods can be used to detect viral antigens within infected cells, confirming viral multiplication. Options C is incorrect as viral colonies are not typically used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture. Option B alone is not sufficient as it only focuses on immunofluorescence detection, while option A alone may not always be specific. Therefore, the combination of A and B provides a more comprehensive and accurate detection method for viral multiplication in cell culture.

Question 4 of 9

A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. 1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane. 3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts. 4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.

Question 5 of 9

For the specific prophylaxis of rabies it is NOT CORRECT that

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.

Question 6 of 9

A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Question 7 of 9

A Gram-negative bacterium producing a blue-green pigment and having a fruity odor was isolated from a patient's wound infection. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Blue-green pigment + fruity odor are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. 2. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with wound infections. 3. P. aeruginosa is known for its ability to produce pyocyanin (blue-green pigment) and a sweet, fruity odor. 4. Other choices like E. coli, K. pneumoniae, and P. mirabilis do not typically produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. 5. Therefore, based on the characteristics observed, the likely causative agent is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Summary of other choices: - Escherichia coli: Does not produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. - Klebsiella pneumoniae: Does not typically produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. - Proteus mirabilis: Does not produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor.

Question 8 of 9

Resident microflora is found in

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: urethra. Resident microflora refers to the normal, beneficial bacteria that inhabit a specific area of the body without causing harm. The urethra is one of the locations where resident microflora are commonly found. These bacteria play a vital role in maintaining a healthy balance and preventing harmful pathogens from colonizing the urethra. Blood (A), lung (B), and cerebro-spinal fluid (D) are not typical locations for resident microflora as these areas are usually sterile or have very limited microbial presence to prevent infections.

Question 9 of 9

Crude herbal drugs must be examined for yeast-like fungi. What agar can ensure development of these microorganisms so that associating microflora will grow very slowly or won't grow at all?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud's peptone agar. This agar is specifically designed for the isolation of yeast and molds due to its low pH and high sugar content, creating an environment conducive for their growth. Yeast-like fungi thrive in this selective medium, while inhibiting the growth of bacteria and other contaminants. Summary: - Sabouraud's peptone agar is ideal for cultivating yeast-like fungi. - Endo agar is used for isolation of gram-negative bacteria, not fungi. - Milk-salt agar is used for lactobacilli and streptococci, not fungi. - Meat infusion agar is a general-purpose medium for cultivation of a wide range of microorganisms, not specifically for yeast-like fungi.

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