ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The key diagnostic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: presence of metachromatic granules. This is because Corynebacterium diphtheriae is known for containing metachromatic granules, which are characteristic of this species. These granules can be observed under a microscope and aid in the identification of the bacteria. Explanation of other choices: A: formation of spores - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not form spores. Spore formation is more commonly seen in bacteria such as Bacillus and Clostridium species. C: production of coagulase - Coagulase production is a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus, not Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D: beta-hemolysis on blood agar - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not exhibit beta-hemolysis on blood agar. This type of hemolysis is more typical of Streptococcus pyogenes.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.
Question 3 of 9
The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is marked, the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not
Question 4 of 9
How is detected viral multiplication in cell culture
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (A and B both). In viral multiplication, the presence of a specific cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell culture indicates viral replication. This is detected visually through changes in cell morphology. Additionally, immunofluorescence detection methods can be used to detect viral antigens within infected cells, confirming viral multiplication. Options C is incorrect as viral colonies are not typically used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture. Option B alone is not sufficient as it only focuses on immunofluorescence detection, while option A alone may not always be specific. Therefore, the combination of A and B provides a more comprehensive and accurate detection method for viral multiplication in cell culture.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. 1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane. 3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts. 4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water due to its ability to survive and multiply in water sources. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, a severe gastrointestinal infection transmitted through contaminated food and water. Clostridium difficile, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are not typically associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water. Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections linked to antibiotic use, Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis through respiratory transmission, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections.
Question 7 of 9
Examples for chemical vaccines are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Shiga anatoxin. This is because the Salk and Sabin vaccines are actually for polio, not chemical vaccines. HPV vaccine is a biological vaccine, not a chemical one. Shiga anatoxin is a chemical vaccine used against Shigella bacteria, making it the only correct choice for chemical vaccines in this question.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presented with a painful, swollen lymph node, and bacteremia. A Gram-negative rod with a characteristic safety pin appearance was observed. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative rod with safety pin appearance indicates bipolar staining. Step 2: Yersinia pestis is a Gram-negative rod causing bubonic plague. Step 3: Y. pestis has bipolar staining due to its unique F1 capsule. Step 4: The swollen lymph node and bacteremia are consistent with bubonic plague. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. Summary: - B: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - C: Brucella melitensis causes brucellosis, not characterized by a safety pin appearance. - D: Pasteurella multocida causes animal bites infections, not characterized by a safety pin appearance.
Question 9 of 9
UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.