The innate immune system is always working to protect the body and does not require any special preparation to stop infection:

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Question 1 of 9

The innate immune system is always working to protect the body and does not require any special preparation to stop infection:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. The innate immune system is the body's first line of defense against infections and is always active, providing immediate protection without prior exposure to a specific pathogen. It includes physical barriers, such as skin and mucous membranes, and cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. The innate immune response is nonspecific and rapid, providing a crucial initial defense against pathogens. Choice B is incorrect because the innate immune system is always active, even without any prior exposure to pathogens. Choice C is incorrect because the innate immune system is consistently functioning to protect the body, regardless of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is A.

Question 2 of 9

Streptococci are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Streptococci are Gram-positive bacteria, typically spherical in shape, and range from 0.5-1 µm in size. A is incorrect as streptococci are not rod-shaped and are usually smaller in size. B is incorrect as they are not Gram-negative and are not typically of such small size. C is incorrect as streptococci are not Gram-negative and are not usually rod-shaped. Thus, based on their characteristics, the correct answer is D.

Question 3 of 9

A 14-year-old patient was diagnosed with Hutchinson's triad: barrel-shaped incisors, parenchymatous keratitis and deafness. The revealed presentations are consistent with the following disease:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. Hutchinson's triad is a classic presentation of congenital syphilis in children. Barrel-shaped incisors, parenchymatous keratitis, and deafness are key manifestations. Barrel-shaped incisors result from mulberry molars, a type of abnormal tooth. Parenchymatous keratitis is an inflammation of the cornea, a common ocular sign in congenital syphilis. Deafness can occur due to damage to the auditory nerve caused by the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present with the specific triad of symptoms seen in congenital syphilis.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding B cells?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: B cells develop in the bone marrow, not the thymus. Firstly, hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow give rise to B cells. They undergo maturation and selection processes in the bone marrow, not in the thymus. Therefore, choice B is false. On the other hand, choices A, C, and D are correct. A is true because B cells with high affinity to self-antigens undergo apoptosis to prevent autoimmunity. C is true since B cells synthesize antibodies which can be displayed on their surface as B cell receptors. D is true because B cells can undergo class switching to produce different types of antibodies based on the immune response requirements.

Question 5 of 9

In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and damage the microvilli:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC). EPEC bacteria adhere to the intestine wall using a protein called intimin, leading to microvilli damage. This attachment disrupts the normal absorption function of the intestine. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC) primarily causes bloody diarrhea and does not specifically target microvilli. C: Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (ETEC) produces toxins that lead to watery diarrhea but does not directly target microvilli. D: Enteroinvasive E. Coli (EIEC) invades and replicates within intestinal cells, causing inflammatory diarrhea, but does not specifically damage microvilli.

Question 6 of 9

In order to prevent wound infection associated with surgical procedures a patient was given a synthetic antiprotozoan drug with a high activity against Helicobacter pylori. Specify this drug:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoan drug with high activity against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that can cause wound infections. Metronidazole specifically targets anaerobic bacteria like H. pylori, making it effective in preventing wound infections. Incorrect choices: B: Doxycycline hydrochloride - Doxycycline is primarily used for bacterial infections, not protozoan infections like H. pylori. C: Chingamin - Chingamin is not a commonly used drug for treating H. pylori infections or preventing wound infections. D: Acyclovir - Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not bacterial or protozoan infections like H. pylori.

Question 7 of 9

Urine examination of a patient with acute cystitis revealed leukocytes and a lot of gram-negative bacilli. Inoculation resulted in growth of colonies of mucous nature that formed green soluble pigment. What microorganism is the most probable cause of the disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Presence of gram-negative bacilli suggests Enterobacteriaceae family, which includes E. coli. 2. Green soluble pigment indicates pyocyanin production, characteristic of E. coli. 3. E. coli is the most common cause of acute cystitis due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. Summary: A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not typically associated with acute cystitis and does not produce mucous colonies. B: Klebsiella pneumoniae may cause UTIs, but does not produce green pigment and is less common than E. coli. D: Salmonella enteritidis is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not cystitis.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with a sore throat had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest streptococci. 2. Catalase-negative indicates it's not staphylococci. 3. Beta-hemolytic points towards Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes). Summary: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae is not beta-hemolytic. C. Enterococcus faecalis is not typically chains. D. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive.

Question 9 of 9

After a prolonged isoniazid treatment, the patient developed polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. What is the most likely mechanism of the described isoniazid side-effects?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphate synthesis, which is the active form of vitamin B6. Pyridoxal phosphate is essential for various enzymatic reactions, including neurotransmitter synthesis and myelin formation. Therefore, isoniazid-induced pyridoxal phosphate deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms like polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. A: Disruption of cell membrane synthesis - This is not the mechanism of isoniazid side-effects. B: Inhibition of protein synthesis - Isoniazid does not directly inhibit protein synthesis. C: Inhibition of RNA-synthesis - Isoniazid does not inhibit RNA synthesis; it affects vitamin B6 metabolism.

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