The ideal rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in infants is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the correct rate of chest compressions during CPR is crucial for saving the lives of infants in cardiac arrest. The ideal rate of chest compression during CPR in infants is 100 per minute (Option C). This rate is optimal for maintaining perfusion to vital organs and maximizing the chances of successful resuscitation. Option A (150 per minute) is too fast for infants and may not allow for adequate chest recoil, which is essential for proper blood flow. Option B (125 per minute) is also faster than the recommended rate and may not be as effective in providing adequate circulation. Option D (75 per minute) is too slow and may not generate enough pressure to circulate blood effectively. Educationally, it is important for pediatric nurses to be well-versed in the current CPR guidelines for infants to provide timely and appropriate care in emergency situations. Proper chest compression rates can significantly impact the outcomes of resuscitation efforts, underscoring the importance of this knowledge in pediatric nursing practice. Nurses must continuously update their skills and knowledge to ensure they are prepared to deliver high-quality, evidence-based care to pediatric patients in need.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the features of shock is crucial for early recognition and intervention. The correct answer is B) Tachycardia. In early (compensated) shock, the body attempts to maintain perfusion by increasing heart rate to ensure adequate blood flow to vital organs. Tachycardia is a key compensatory mechanism in response to decreased cardiac output. Option A) Hypotension is incorrect for early shock as the body initially compensates to maintain blood pressure through vasoconstriction and increased heart rate. Hypotension typically occurs in the decompensated stage of shock. Option C) Decreased level of consciousness is a late sign in shock, indicating severe compromise of perfusion to the brain due to prolonged inadequate tissue perfusion. Option D) Cold extremities are seen in the late stages of shock when the body is shunting blood away from the peripheries to maintain core perfusion. Educationally, nurses need to grasp the progressive nature of shock and recognize early signs to initiate prompt interventions. Understanding these nuances can lead to improved outcomes for pediatric patients experiencing shock. Remembering that tachycardia is an early compensatory response helps nurses to act swiftly in providing appropriate care to prevent further deterioration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question from the Pediatric Nursing Test Bank, the correct answer is option C) Renal tubular acidosis. Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap is a condition where there is an excess of acid in the body fluids, leading to a decrease in blood pH. Renal tubular acidosis is a renal condition where the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids into the urine, leading to an accumulation of acid in the blood and subsequent metabolic acidosis. This condition does not typically result in a high anion gap. Option A) Diabetic ketoacidosis is a condition seen in uncontrolled diabetes where the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap. Option B) Salicylate poisoning can also cause metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap due to the accumulation of salicylic acid in the body. Option D) Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis, but it is usually classified as a non-anion gap acidosis. Understanding the causes of metabolic acidosis with high anion gap is crucial in pediatric nursing as it helps in the accurate assessment and management of critically ill children. Nurses need to be able to differentiate between the various causes of acid-base imbalances to provide timely and appropriate interventions to stabilize the child's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, managing chronic hemolytic anemia requires a thorough understanding of when to initiate iron chelation therapy to prevent iron overload. The correct answer is B) 8-10 times for the cutoff number of transfused blood units to start an iron chelating agent in these patients. This is because chronic transfusions can lead to iron accumulation in the body, which can result in organ damage and other complications. Initiating iron chelation therapy after 8-10 transfusions helps prevent iron overload and its associated risks. Option A) 5-7 times is incorrect because initiating iron chelation therapy at this stage may be too early and expose the patient to unnecessary treatment and potential side effects. Option C) 12-15 times and Option D) 15-20 times are incorrect as waiting until this high number of transfusions may lead to significant iron overload and associated complications before starting chelation therapy. Educationally, understanding the appropriate timing for initiating iron chelation therapy in chronic hemolytic anemia patients is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide optimal care and prevent complications. It is important to monitor the number of transfusions closely and initiate therapy at the right time to ensure the best outcomes for these patients. Regular education and updates on current guidelines in managing chronic hemolytic anemia are essential for nurses caring for pediatric patients with this condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the etiology of purpura is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. In this case, the correct answer is B) Anaphylactoid purpura. This condition, also known as Henoch-Schönlein purpura, is the commonest cause of non-thrombocytopenic purpura in children. It is characterized by the deposition of immune complexes in small blood vessels, leading to inflammation and purpura. Option A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is incorrect because DIC typically presents with thrombocytopenia due to widespread activation of coagulation pathways. Option C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is incorrect as it is a malignant condition affecting the bone marrow and typically presents with other symptoms such as anemia, fatigue, and increased susceptibility to infections. Option D) Hypersplenism is incorrect as it is characterized by splenic sequestration of platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia. Educationally, this question emphasizes the importance of recognizing different causes of purpura in pediatric patients. Nurses need to be able to differentiate between various types of purpura to provide appropriate care and interventions. Understanding the pathophysiology behind each condition helps in making accurate clinical judgments and implementing effective nursing management strategies.