ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The ideal rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in infants is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the correct rate of chest compressions during CPR is crucial for saving infants' lives. The ideal rate of chest compression during CPR in infants is 100 per minute (Option C). This rate is recommended by the American Heart Association (AHA) for effective circulation and oxygenation. Option A (150 per minute) is too fast for infants and may not allow for adequate chest recoil, affecting blood flow. Option B (125 per minute) is also too fast and can lead to ineffective compressions. Option D (75 per minute) is too slow and may not generate enough force to circulate blood effectively. Educationally, it is important to teach healthcare providers the correct rate of chest compressions in infants to ensure they are prepared to respond in emergency situations. Understanding and practicing these guidelines can make a significant difference in the outcomes of pediatric patients in cardiac arrest. By reinforcing these principles through test questions, educators can help solidify this essential knowledge among students and healthcare professionals.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is a feature of early (compensated) shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the signs and symptoms of shock is crucial for early identification and intervention. In the context of early (compensated) shock, the correct feature is tachycardia (Option B). Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism the body employs to maintain perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs in response to decreased blood volume or pressure. Hypotension (Option A) is a feature of late (decompensated) shock when compensatory mechanisms fail. Decreased level of consciousness (Option C) and cold extremities (Option D) are also signs of late-stage shock when the body is unable to maintain perfusion adequately. Educationally, understanding the progression of shock from compensated to decompensated stages is vital for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing early signs like tachycardia can prompt timely interventions to prevent further deterioration and improve outcomes. This knowledge equips nurses to assess, intervene, and communicate effectively in emergency situations, ensuring the best possible care for pediatric patients in shock.
Question 3 of 5
All the following can cause metabolic acidosis with high anion gap Except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding metabolic acidosis is crucial as it can have serious implications on a child's health. In this question, the correct answer is C) Renal tubular acidosis. Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids into the urine, leading to metabolic acidosis. This results in a high anion gap due to the accumulation of unmeasured anions. Therefore, RTA can cause metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap. A) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a condition commonly seen in pediatric patients with diabetes. It leads to the production of ketones and metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. B) Salicylate poisoning can also cause metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap due to the accumulation of salicylic acid. D) Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis, but typically with a normal anion gap, not a high anion gap. Educationally, understanding the causes of metabolic acidosis and the associated anion gap can help pediatric nurses in assessing and managing critically ill children. It is essential to differentiate between various etiologies of metabolic acidosis to provide prompt and appropriate interventions, emphasizing the importance of accurate clinical assessment and knowledge application in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 4 of 5
The cut off number of transfused blood units to start an iron chelating agent in chronic hemolytic anemia patients is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 8-10 times for starting an iron chelating agent in chronic hemolytic anemia patients. In pediatric patients with chronic hemolytic anemia, such as sickle cell disease, regular blood transfusions can lead to iron overload due to the iron content in transfused blood. Iron chelation therapy helps in removing excess iron from the body to prevent organ damage. Option A) 5-7 times is incorrect because patients usually require a higher number of transfusions before initiating iron chelation therapy to effectively manage iron overload. Option C) 12-15 times and Option D) 15-20 times are incorrect as they suggest waiting for a significantly higher number of transfusions before starting iron chelation therapy. Delaying the initiation of chelation therapy can increase the risk of iron-related complications in these patients. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate timing for starting iron chelation therapy in pediatric patients with chronic hemolytic anemia is crucial for preventing long-term complications associated with iron overload. Nurses caring for these patients need to be aware of the guidelines regarding the initiation of chelation therapy based on the number of transfusions received, as highlighted in this question. This knowledge is essential for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients with chronic hemolytic anemia.
Question 5 of 5
The commonest cause of non-thrombocytopenic purpura in children is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the etiology of non-thrombocytopenic purpura is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. The correct answer is B) Anaphylactoid purpura. This condition, also known as Henoch-Schönlein purpura, is the most common cause of non-thrombocytopenic purpura in children. It is characterized by a systemic vasculitis affecting small vessels, resulting in purpuric skin rash, joint pain, abdominal pain, and renal involvement. Option A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is incorrect because DIC typically presents with thrombocytopenia, whereas the question specifies non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Option C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is incorrect as it is a type of leukemia that primarily affects the bone marrow and blood, leading to symptoms such as anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia, but not typically purpura. Option D) Hypersplenism is incorrect because it is a condition where the spleen sequesters and destroys blood cells, leading to cytopenias, including thrombocytopenia, but not non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Educationally, knowing the common causes of non-thrombocytopenic purpura in children helps nurses differentiate between various conditions presenting with similar symptoms. Understanding the pathophysiology and clinical manifestations of Anaphylactoid purpura aids in providing appropriate care and education to patients and their families.