The human body regulates homeostasis by communicating at the cellular level through the nervous and endocrine systems. Which of the following is responsible for serving as the command and control center for linking the systems together?

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Question 1 of 5

The human body regulates homeostasis by communicating at the cellular level through the nervous and endocrine systems. Which of the following is responsible for serving as the command and control center for linking the systems together?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus serves as the command and control center for linking the nervous and endocrine systems together. It regulates various physiological processes by secreting hormones that control the pituitary gland, which in turn influences other endocrine glands. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis by receiving signals from various parts of the body and coordinating appropriate responses. Summary: B: Adrenal gland - While the adrenal gland plays a role in producing hormones that help regulate stress response and metabolism, it is not primarily responsible for linking the nervous and endocrine systems. C: Thyroid gland - The thyroid gland primarily regulates metabolism through the production of thyroid hormones and does not serve as the command center for linking the systems together. D: Pituitary gland - Although the pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" because it controls other endocrine glands, it receives signals from the hypothalamus and is not

Question 2 of 5

Hemorrhage of 20% of the patient's blood volume is associated usually with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia. When a patient experiences a hemorrhage of 20% of their blood volume, the body responds by increasing the heart rate to compensate for the decreased blood volume and maintain adequate circulation. This compensatory mechanism results in tachycardia. Oliguria (A) is a decrease in urine output and is not typically associated with a hemorrhage. Confusion (B) may occur if the brain is not receiving enough oxygen due to severe bleeding but is not specific to a 20% blood volume loss. Hypotension (C) is usually associated with a more significant blood loss, typically exceeding 20%.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following suggest urethral injury EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the absence of a palpable prostate on rectal exam is not a direct indicator of urethral injury. A palpable prostate is more related to prostate health rather than urethral injury. Scrotal hematoma, blood in the rectal lumen, and blood in the external urethral meatus are all signs that suggest urethral injury due to trauma or other causes. These symptoms are more specific to the urethra and its surrounding structures, making them more relevant indicators of urethral injury compared to the absence of a palpable prostate.

Question 4 of 5

A 22 year old male presents following a motorcycle crash. He complains of the inability to move his legs. His BP is 80/50, HR 70, RR 18 and GCS 15. Oxygen saturation is 99% on 21 nasal prongs. Chest x-ray, pelvic x-ray and FAST are normal. Extremities are normal. His management should be:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2L of iv crystalloid and vasopressors if BP does not respond. This patient presents with symptoms of spinal cord injury with hypotension, which indicates neurogenic shock. Initial management involves fluid resuscitation to maintain perfusion. If the BP does not respond to fluids, vasopressors are indicated to support blood pressure. The other choices are incorrect because the patient does not have signs of hemorrhagic shock, so transfusing pRBCs (choice A) is unnecessary. Mannitol and steroids (choice C) are not indicated in the acute management of spinal cord injury. Laparotomy (choice D) is not indicated based on the clinical presentation.

Question 5 of 5

A 15 year old male presents following a motorcycle crash. Initial examination reveals normal vital signs. There is a large bruise over his epigastrium that extends to the left flank. He has no other apparent injuries. A CT-scan of the abdomen demonstrates a ruptured spleen surrounded by a large hematoma and fluid in the pelvis. The next step in the patient's management is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Surgical consult." A ruptured spleen is a surgical emergency that may require splenectomy. A surgical consult is needed to evaluate the patient's condition, determine the need for surgery, and plan the appropriate management. Splenic artery embolization (choice A) may be considered in stable patients, but this patient has a large hematoma and fluid in the pelvis, suggesting active bleeding and hemodynamic instability, which would require surgery. Pneumococcal vaccine (choice B) is important for patients without a spleen post-splenectomy, but it is not the immediate next step in management. Urgent laparotomy (choice C) is too specific without considering the need for surgical evaluation first.

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