The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?

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Question 1 of 9

The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial. Summary of other choices: B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients. C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Question 2 of 9

Initiate feeding.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.

Question 3 of 9

Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is scheduled to have an ossiculoplasty. What postoperative assessment will best determine whether the procedure has been successful?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Audiometry. Postoperative audiometry is the most appropriate assessment to determine the success of ossiculoplasty, as it evaluates the patient's hearing function and any improvements made by the surgery. Otoscopy (A) is a visual examination of the ear canal and may not provide comprehensive information on hearing. Balance testing (C) assesses equilibrium and is not directly related to the success of ossiculoplasty. Culture and sensitivity testing (D) of ear discharge is used to identify infections and would not directly indicate the success of the surgery.

Question 5 of 9

A patient is postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy. The patient has phoned the surgical unit and states that she is experiencing occasional sharp, shooting pains in her affected ear. How should the nurse best interpret this patients complaint?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy is still within the early phase of recovery, where occasional sharp, shooting pains in the affected ear can be expected due to the healing process. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Timing: It is only day 6 post-surgery, so it is normal to experience some pain as part of the healing process. 2. Nature of pain: Sharp, shooting pains are common post-surgery due to tissue healing and nerve regeneration. 3. Lack of other symptoms: The patient did not report any other concerning symptoms like fever or discharge, which would be more indicative of an infection. 4. Unlikely complications: Spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane or unsuccessful surgery would typically present with more severe and consistent symptoms. Summary: - B: Unlikely as there are no other signs of infection. - C: Unlikely as the pain is described as occasional and sharp. - D:

Question 6 of 9

A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for the assessment of redness and discharge from the eye and is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. What is the most important information to discuss with the parents and child?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of viral conjunctivitis, which is highly contagious. Step 2: Children often touch their eyes and then surfaces, aiding in disease transmission. Step 3: Educating parents and the child on proper hand hygiene can help contain the infection. Step 4: Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, so compliance is not necessary. Step 5: Complications like meningitis and septicemia are extremely rare with viral conjunctivitis. Step 6: Surgery is not indicated for viral conjunctivitis, as it is a self-limiting condition.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain control. This is the main focus because the patient's quality of life should be prioritized, and managing pain is crucial for comfort and well-being in end-of-life care. Pain can significantly impact the patient's physical and emotional state. The other choices are incorrect because managing treatment complications (B) and administering treatments (E) may not be relevant if the tumor is inoperable and the patient has a short life expectancy. Interpretation of diagnostic tests (C) may not be necessary at this stage, and assistance with self-care (D) may not be the main priority compared to pain control.

Question 8 of 9

Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men. This group currently has the highest risk of contracting HIV due to various factors such as higher prevalence within this population, risky sexual behaviors, and limited access to healthcare services. Men who have sex with men have been disproportionately affected by HIV/AIDS since the beginning of the epidemic. Recreational drug users and blood transfusion recipients have lower overall risk compared to men who have sex with men. Health care providers, although at risk of occupational exposure, have lower risk compared to the other groups mentioned.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.

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