ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial. Summary of other choices: B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients. C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Question 2 of 5
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with Parkinsons disease is experiencing episodes of constipation that are becoming increasingly frequent and severe. The patient states that he has been achieving relief for the past few weeks by using OTC laxatives. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lets explore other options, because laxatives can have side effects and create dependency. The rationale for this is that while laxatives provide temporary relief for constipation, using them long-term can lead to dependency, electrolyte imbalances, and other side effects. The nurse should address the root cause of constipation and explore alternative strategies such as dietary changes, increased fluid intake, exercise, and bowel training. Choices A and B focus on supportive measures rather than addressing the issue of potential dependency on laxatives. Choice D suggests herbal remedies without considering the individual's specific condition and medical history.
Question 4 of 5
A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient’s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.
Question 5 of 5
Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men. This group currently has the highest risk of contracting HIV due to various factors such as higher prevalence within this population, risky sexual behaviors, and limited access to healthcare services. Men who have sex with men have been disproportionately affected by HIV/AIDS since the beginning of the epidemic. Recreational drug users and blood transfusion recipients have lower overall risk compared to men who have sex with men. Health care providers, although at risk of occupational exposure, have lower risk compared to the other groups mentioned.
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