The home care nurse is providing teaching for a 59-year-old patient taking a nonselective beta-blocker. The nurse teaches the patient the importance of notifying the prescribing physician when what occurs related to this medication?

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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

The home care nurse is providing teaching for a 59-year-old patient taking a nonselective beta-blocker. The nurse teaches the patient the importance of notifying the prescribing physician when what occurs related to this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bronchospasm, cough, rhinitis, and bronchial obstruction are related to loss of bronchodilation of the respiratory tract and vasodilation of mucous membrane vessels so a sudden onset of a cough or difficulty breathing should be immediately reported to the health care provider. Other options may need to be reported but not in relation to the nonselective beta-blocking medication. The nurse should educate the patient about potential adverse effects and the importance of timely reporting.

Question 2 of 5

Gold salt toxicity can be reversed using which medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dimercaprol is a chelating agent used to treat heavy metal toxicity, including gold salt toxicity. It binds to the gold ions, forming a complex that can be excreted from the body. Acetaminophen, calcium salts, and hydroxocobalamin are not used for this purpose. Prompt administration of dimercaprol is essential to prevent severe complications of gold salt toxicity.

Question 3 of 5

A female client who has a history of seizures went to a healthcare facility to ask the nurse regarding the use of birth control pills while on phenytoin therapy. The nurse correctly states to the client that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phenytoin induces liver enzymes that increase the metabolism of oral contraceptives, reducing their effectiveness. This increases the risk of unintended pregnancy. Pregnancy is not prohibited, but effective contraception is essential. Discontinuing phenytoin is not recommended without medical advice. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client about the decreased effectiveness of birth control pills.

Question 4 of 5

A 42-year-old woman has widely disseminated colon cancer. Her main symptom is pain from a spinal crush fracture, incompletely suppressed by oral morphine. She is also troubled by constipation, nausea and occasional vomiting. Which of the following is true?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metastatic colon cancer with spinal pain needs palliation. Fentanyl patches cause nausea, like morphine, due to opioid effects, so that's false. Cisplatin, for other cancers, doesn't prolong survival in advanced colon cancer (FOLFOX does). Radiotherapy to the primary isn't mainstay for metastases; palliation is. Biopsy of the vertebra is unnecessary with known cancer. Intercostal nerve block targets chest pain, not spinal, but localized nerve blocks (e.g., epidural) are true options for refractory pain, making this the best fit per key.

Question 5 of 5

ACE inhibitors:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin by blocking its breakdown, not decrease it, so that's false. Hyperkalemia is more common in diabetes due to renal issues, not less, making that false. They're not absolutely contraindicated with NSAIDs, though caution applies, so that's incorrect. They decrease efferent arteriolar resistance, reducing glomerular pressure, a true statement, key in renoprotection. They don't reduce prostaglandins (NSAIDs do). This hemodynamic effect is vital in hypertension and diabetic nephropathy.

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