ATI RN
openstax microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: placenta. The placenta is a highly specialized structure that forms during pregnancy and serves as a barrier, protecting the fetus from harmful microorganisms that could potentially harm the developing baby. It facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste between the mother and fetus while preventing the passage of most bacteria and viruses. The uterus (A) is the organ where the fetus develops, but it does not have the specific protective functions of the placenta. The vagina (C) is the birth canal and does not provide protection from microorganisms for the fetus. The mammary gland (D) is responsible for producing milk after birth and is not directly involved in protecting the fetus from microorganisms during pregnancy.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is capable of surviving in extreme heat?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bacillus subtilis. Bacillus subtilis is a thermophilic bacterium capable of surviving in extreme heat due to its heat-resistant spores. It forms spores when exposed to unfavorable conditions, allowing it to withstand high temperatures. Escherichia coli (A), Staphylococcus aureus (C), and Clostridium botulinum (D) are mesophilic bacteria that do not have the same heat resistance mechanisms as Bacillus subtilis, making them unable to survive in extreme heat conditions.
Question 3 of 9
Pathological material taken from a patient suffering from pulpitis was inoculated onto Kitt-Tarozzi cultural medium. It is planned to find the following microorganisms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic. Pulpitis is an inflammatory condition of the dental pulp, often caused by bacterial infection. Anaerobic bacteria are commonly associated with dental infections, making it likely to find them in the inoculated culture medium. Anaerobic bacteria thrive in the absence of oxygen, which is typical of the dental environment. Acid-resistant (B) and acidophilic (C) microorganisms are not specifically linked to pulpitis. Haemolytic (D) microorganisms typically lyse red blood cells, which is not a characteristic feature of bacteria causing pulpitis. Therefore, the most likely microorganisms to be found in the culture medium would be anaerobic bacteria.
Question 4 of 9
The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to detect:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is specifically designed to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It utilizes a carbol fuchsin dye that binds to the high lipid content in the cell wall of acid-fast bacteria, making them appear red under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for the diagnosis of tuberculosis and leprosy. Gram-positive bacteria (Choice A) are not detected by this stain since they have a different cell wall structure. Capsulated bacteria (Choice C) and fungal spores (Choice D) also have distinct characteristics that are not targeted by the Ziehl-Neelsen stain.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thermophiles. Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures typically above 45°C. They have specialized enzymes and cellular structures that allow them to survive and even thrive in extreme heat. Psychrophiles (A) are adapted to cold temperatures, mesophiles (B) thrive at moderate temperatures, and halophiles (D) prefer high salt concentrations, making them unsuitable for extreme heat survival. Therefore, Thermophiles are the only bacteria among the choices that are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat.
Question 6 of 9
A 70-year-old man has developed prosphetic stomatitis. Apart of this he was found to have an evident lesion of mouth corners. Microscopical examination revealed large ovoid gram-positive cells. What microorganisms are most likely to be the leading etiological agent of such a lesion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with an abscess had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.
Question 8 of 9
A patient's preliminary diagnosis is toxoplasmosis. What material was used for diagnostics of this disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. Toxoplasmosis is diagnosed through serological tests that detect specific antibodies in the blood. These antibodies indicate exposure to the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. Feces, urine, and duodenal contents are not typically used for diagnosing toxoplasmosis as the parasite is not commonly found in these samples. Blood is the primary material used as it provides the necessary antibodies for accurate diagnosis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient diagnosed with botulism has been prescribed antibotulinic serum for treatment. What immunity will be formed in the given patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic passive immunity. Antibotulinic serum contains pre-formed antibodies against the botulinum toxin, providing immediate protection to the patient. This is passive immunity as the patient does not produce their antibodies but receives them externally. Choice B is incorrect as botulism is not an infection, so the patient does not develop infection immunity. Choice C is incorrect because active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to an antigen, which is not the case here. Choice D is incorrect as antimicrobic immunity relates to protection against microbes, not toxins like in botulism.