The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the:

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Question 1 of 9

The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: placenta. The placenta is a highly specialized structure that forms during pregnancy and serves as a barrier, protecting the fetus from harmful microorganisms that could potentially harm the developing baby. It facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste between the mother and fetus while preventing the passage of most bacteria and viruses. The uterus (A) is the organ where the fetus develops, but it does not have the specific protective functions of the placenta. The vagina (C) is the birth canal and does not provide protection from microorganisms for the fetus. The mammary gland (D) is responsible for producing milk after birth and is not directly involved in protecting the fetus from microorganisms during pregnancy.

Question 2 of 9

What is the structure of the bacterial cell wall?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peptidoglycan. Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, a unique macromolecule consisting of sugars and amino acids. This structure provides rigidity and protection to the cell. Lipopolysaccharides are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, not in the cell wall. Phospholipids are the main components of cell membranes, not cell walls. Chitin is a structural polysaccharide found in the cell walls of fungi and some algae, not bacteria.

Question 3 of 9

A mercury-containing compound used as a preservative in vaccines is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: thimerosal. Thimerosal is a mercury-containing compound used as a preservative in vaccines. It helps prevent contamination and growth of bacteria and fungi in multi-dose vials. Choice A, analgesic, refers to pain relievers, not preservatives. Choice B, EDTA, is a chelating agent used to bind metal ions and is not a preservative. Choice C, codeine, is an opioid pain medication and not a preservative used in vaccines. Thimerosal is the correct answer as it specifically fits the description of a mercury-containing compound used in vaccines.

Question 4 of 9

Which one belongs to genus Orthopoxvirus?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three viruses, Vaccinia virus, Smallpox virus, and Cowpox virus, belong to the genus Orthopoxvirus. They share similar characteristics and genetic makeup. Vaccinia virus is used as a vaccine against smallpox, Smallpox virus causes smallpox disease, and Cowpox virus can infect both animals and humans. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these viruses is a member of the Orthopoxvirus genus.

Question 5 of 9

In Transmissive infections, the vector is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Air. In transmissive infections, the vector refers to the means by which the infectious agent is transmitted from one host to another. Air can carry pathogens such as viruses and bacteria, leading to respiratory infections like the flu or tuberculosis. Airborne transmission occurs when droplets containing the pathogens are inhaled. Objects (B), medical devices (C), and water (D) can also transmit infections, but they are not specifically related to transmissive infections. Objects and medical devices can harbor pathogens, while waterborne infections are transmitted through contaminated water sources. However, in the context of transmissive infections, the primary vector is the air due to its ability to carry infectious agents over distances.

Question 6 of 9

A 70-year-old man has developed prosphetic stomatitis. Apart of this he was found to have an evident lesion of mouth corners. Microscopical examination revealed large ovoid gram-positive cells. What microorganisms are most likely to be the leading etiological agent of such a lesion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Question 7 of 9

A patient suffers from pulmonary tuberculosis. During treatment neuritis of visual nerve arose. What drug has caused this by-effect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, affecting the visual nerve. It is a well-documented side effect of this drug. Isoniazid (Choice A) is associated with peripheral neuropathy, not optic neuritis. Kanamycin (Choice C) is known for its side effects on the inner ear, causing hearing loss. Rifampicin (Choice D) is not typically associated with optic neuritis but can cause other adverse effects like hepatitis. By process of elimination and knowledge of drug side effects, Ethambutol is the most likely culprit.

Question 8 of 9

A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase of body temperature up to 39, 90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis began. The attacks repeat rhythmically in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnostics is necessary to use?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.

Question 9 of 9

DNA transfer from one bacterium to another through phages is termed as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transduction. In bacterial genetics, transduction refers to the process of DNA transfer from one bacterium to another via bacteriophages. During transduction, the bacteriophage infects a bacterium, incorporating bacterial DNA into its own genome, which is then transferred to another bacterium upon infecting it. Rationale: A: Transfection is the process of introducing foreign DNA into eukaryotic cells, not bacteria. C: Induction is the process of activating gene expression in a cell. D: Infection is a general term for the invasion of pathogens into a host organism, not specific to DNA transfer via phages in bacteria.

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