ATI RN
Genitourinary Review of Systems Questions
Question 1 of 5
The highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous * enterocolitis has been noted with the use of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is associated with a high incidence of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to its strong impact on disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. This bacterium can produce toxins causing inflammation and pseudomembrane formation in the colon. Ampicillin (A) can also cause C. difficile infection, but clindamycin is more strongly associated. Chloramphenicol (B) and vancomycin (C) are less commonly associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis compared to clindamycin.
Question 2 of 5
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is: *
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Procaine penicillin. Procaine penicillin is a long-acting penicillin formulation due to the addition of procaine, which slows down the release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged duration of action compared to benzathine, sodium, and potassium penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is also long-acting but primarily used for prevention, not treatment. Sodium and potassium penicillin are not formulated for extended action, making them less suitable for long-term treatment. Therefore, D is the best choice for long-lasting penicillin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statement(s) about metronidazole is correct?: *
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that requires activation by bacterial reductases to form nitro intermediates. 2. These activated intermediates bind DNA, leading to DNA strand breakage and inhibition of anaerobic bacterial replication. 3. This mechanism of action makes metronidazole effective against anaerobic bacteria. 4. Choice A is incorrect as metronidazole is not the first-line drug for amoebic dysentery or liver abscess - it is mainly used for anaerobic infections. 5. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not the most effective drug for eradicating amoebic cysts in the colon; other drugs like tinidazole are preferred for that purpose. 6. Choice D is incomplete and does not provide any information related to metronidazole's mechanism of action.
Question 4 of 5
Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher * concentrations?:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chloramphenicol. At lower concentrations, Chloramphenicol is primarily bacteriostatic, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. However, at higher concentrations, it can disrupt the bacterial ribosome, leading to bacterial cell death, making it bactericidal. Erythromycin (A) and Tetracycline (B) are primarily bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. Ampicillin (D) interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis but does not exhibit a concentration-dependent shift to bactericidal activity like Chloramphenicol.
Question 5 of 5
A 70 year old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with bPH. He has * tried alpha blockers with little effect. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5α-reductase in the prostate which is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Finasteride. Finasteride inhibits 5-alpha reductase, reducing conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the prostate. This helps shrink the prostate gland, relieving urinary symptoms in BPH. Leuprolide (A) is a GnRH agonist used for prostate cancer. Flutamide (C) is an antiandrogen for prostate cancer. Ketoconazole (D) is an antifungal, not for BPH. Finasteride is the most appropriate choice for this patient based on mechanism of action and indication.