ATI RN
Cardiovascular Conditions Pediatrics Test Bank Questions Free Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider prescribes epoetin alfa (Procrit) 8,200 units subcutaneously for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The 2 ml multidose vial is labeled, 'Each 1 ml of solution contains 10,000 units of epoetin alfa.' How many ml should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) 0.8 ml. To determine the correct dosage to administer, the nurse needs to calculate based on the concentration of the medication in the vial and the prescribed dose. Since each 1 ml of the solution contains 10,000 units of epoetin alfa, and the prescribed dose is 8,200 units, the nurse should administer 0.8 ml (8,200 units / 10,000 units/ml = 0.82 ml). Option B) 8 ml is incorrect because it does not consider the concentration of the medication in the vial. Option C) 0 ml is incorrect as the patient does require medication administration. Option D) 1 ml is incorrect as it would result in administering more medication than the prescribed dose. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of medication dosage calculations in nursing practice, especially in the context of pediatric patients with specific conditions like chronic kidney disease. Nurses must have a strong understanding of medication concentrations and prescribed doses to ensure accurate and safe administration, emphasizing the critical role of pharmacology knowledge in nursing care.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is collecting information from a client with chronic pancreatitis who reports persistent gnawing abdominal pain. To help the client manage the pain, which assessment data is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of a client with chronic pancreatitis experiencing persistent gnawing abdominal pain, the most important assessment data for the nurse to obtain is eating patterns and dietary intake (Option A). This is crucial because in pancreatitis, the pancreas is inflamed and struggles to produce digestive enzymes, leading to malabsorption of nutrients. Certain foods can exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms, such as fatty or spicy foods. By assessing the client's eating patterns and dietary intake, the nurse can identify potential triggers for the abdominal pain and provide appropriate dietary recommendations to manage the pain and prevent further complications. Option B, level and amount of physical activity, while important in overall health management, is not directly related to managing abdominal pain in chronic pancreatitis. Option C, color and consistency of feces, is more indicative of pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, which may manifest as steatorrhea (fatty stools) but is not directly related to managing abdominal pain. Option D, presence and activity of bowel sounds, is more relevant in assessing gastrointestinal motility but may not directly address the underlying cause of the abdominal pain in chronic pancreatitis. Educationally, understanding the relationship between diet and pancreatitis symptoms is crucial for nurses caring for clients with this condition. By emphasizing the importance of assessing eating patterns and dietary intake, nurses can contribute significantly to symptom management and overall well-being of their clients with chronic pancreatitis.
Question 3 of 5
An adult male client is admitted for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) secondary to AIDS. While hospitalized, he receives IV pentamidine isethionate therapy. In preparing this client for discharge, what important aspect regarding his medication therapy should the nurse explain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that it will be necessary to continue prophylactic doses of IV or aerosol pentamidine every month. This is crucial because pentamidine is used as a prophylactic treatment to prevent Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) in individuals with AIDS. It helps to prevent the recurrence of the opportunistic infection. Option A is incorrect because IV pentamidine is not used to offer protection against other AIDS-related conditions like Kaposi's sarcoma. Option C is incorrect as IV pentamidine is not necessarily given until oral pentamidine can be tolerated, as the mode of administration may differ based on the individual's condition and response to therapy. Option D is incorrect as AZT therapy does not need to be stopped when IV or aerosol pentamidine is being used, as they serve different purposes in managing HIV/AIDS. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind prophylactic treatments like pentamidine in AIDS patients is crucial for nurses to provide comprehensive care. It highlights the importance of medication adherence and patient education in preventing opportunistic infections and improving outcomes for individuals living with HIV/AIDS.
Question 4 of 5
A client with acute renal injury (AKI) who weighs 50 kg and has a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/l) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct medication to administer first to a pediatric client with acute renal injury (AKI) and a high potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L is option C, Sodium polystyrene (Kayexalate) 15 grams PO. Sodium polystyrene is a cation-exchange resin that works by binding to potassium in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to its removal from the body through feces. This helps lower the elevated potassium levels quickly, which is crucial in preventing life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias associated with hyperkalemia. Option A, Sevelamer, is used to treat high phosphate levels in patients with chronic kidney disease and is not indicated for acute hyperkalemia. Option B, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production and is not the priority in this situation. Option D, Calcium acetate, is used to lower phosphate levels in patients with end-stage renal disease and does not address the immediate issue of hyperkalemia. In an educational context, it is essential to understand the pharmacological management of electrolyte imbalances, especially in pediatric patients with renal dysfunction. Prompt recognition and treatment of hyperkalemia are crucial to prevent serious complications. Nurses need to prioritize interventions based on the urgency of the situation and the potential impact on the patient's health.
Question 5 of 5
To reduce the risk for pulmonary complications for a client with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), what interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of a client with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), the correct intervention to reduce the risk for pulmonary complications is to teach the client breathing exercises (Option C). ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and respiratory compromise. Teaching the client breathing exercises can help maintain lung function, improve respiratory muscle strength, and prevent complications such as pneumonia or respiratory failure. Initiating passive range of motion exercises (Option A) may be beneficial for maintaining joint mobility and preventing contractures in ALS patients but does not directly address pulmonary complications. Establishing a regular bladder routine (Option B) is important for managing urinary issues in ALS but is not directly related to reducing pulmonary complications. Performing chest physiotherapy (Option D) may help with secretion clearance but does not address the overall respiratory muscle weakness seen in ALS. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to understand the specific needs of clients with ALS, especially regarding respiratory care. Teaching breathing exercises empowers the client to take an active role in maintaining their respiratory function and quality of life. Nurses play a key role in educating clients with ALS about self-care strategies to optimize their respiratory health and prevent complications.