ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct lab value to monitor when administering heparin is aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time). This is because heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade, which is reflected in the aPTT value. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent clotting complications. PT/INR and platelet count are not specific to heparin monitoring, and hemoglobin does not directly reflect heparin's anticoagulant effects.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Nitrate medications vasodilate blood vessels, including those in the brain, which can lead to headaches. It is the most common side effect and often subsides with continued use. Flushing is also a common side effect but not as prevalent as headaches. Dizziness and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates and are usually seen in a smaller percentage of patients compared to headaches. Monitoring for headaches is crucial to ensure patient comfort and compliance with the medication regimen.
Question 3 of 5
The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase the dose of warfarin. INR of 1.2 indicates subtherapeutic levels. The nurse's priority is to adjust the dose to achieve a therapeutic range (usually 2-3). Increasing the dose is essential to prevent clot formation. Administering vitamin K (B) is not indicated for a low INR. Monitoring for bleeding (C) is important, but not the priority when the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider (D) may be necessary if the INR is too high, not low.
Question 4 of 5
The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a common side effect of furosemide. Administering a potassium supplement is essential to prevent complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect because holding furosemide can worsen the client's condition. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose can further lower potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect as Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity, not hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement addresses the underlying issue.
Question 5 of 5
The client on amiodarone develops symptoms of hypothyroidism. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: Monitor the client's thyroid function tests regularly. This is the best approach because amiodarone can cause hypothyroidism, so monitoring thyroid function tests allows early detection and appropriate management. Option A is not necessary unless the client presents with severe symptoms. Option B is incorrect as hypothyroidism is a serious side effect that requires monitoring and possible treatment adjustments. Option D is not recommended as abruptly stopping amiodarone can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Regular monitoring ensures timely intervention if thyroid levels are abnormal.