ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) 440. The healthcare professional should document the client's total intake by adding up all the fluids consumed by the child. The child consumed 4 oz of Pedialyte (approximately 120 mL), half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O (approximately 120 mL), two graham crackers (minimal fluid intake), and 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV, totaling 440 mL. Option B) 400 is incorrect because it does not include the correct calculation for the intake of fluids. Option C) 410 is also incorrect as it does not account for the full intake. Option D) 450 is incorrect as it overestimates the total intake by including unnecessary calculations. Understanding how to accurately document a child's intake and output is crucial in pediatric nursing to monitor fluid balance, detect dehydration or overhydration, and assess the effectiveness of treatment. It is important for healthcare professionals to be meticulous in their documentation to ensure optimal care for pediatric patients.
Question 2 of 5
For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker. It lacks significant effects on the calcium channels of the heart, making it ineffective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation. Nifedipine is commonly used in conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory effects and anti-anginal properties.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching a patient who has a new prescription for spironolactone (Aldactone). Which statement by the patient indicated that the teaching was effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing, aldosterone-blocking diuretic. As such, it can cause endocrine effects, such as gynecomastia, menstrual irregularities, impotence, hirsutism, and deepening of the voice. Patients taking spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they contain potassium; high-potassium foods should be avoided with this drug. Ideally, all diuretics should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Question 4 of 5
Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient being started on levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) for newly diagnosed Parkinson’s disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postural hypotension is common early in treatment, so the patient should be instructed to change positions slowly. Administration with meals should be avoided, if possible, because food delays the absorption of the levodopa component. If the patient is experiencing side effects of nausea and vomiting, administration with food may be considered. The levodopa component may darken urine. Carbidopa has no adverse effects of its own.
Question 5 of 5
When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.