ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Study Guide Questions
Question 1 of 5
The hallmarks of allergic rhinitis are the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory condition of the nasal mucosa triggered by allergens. The hallmark symptoms include nasal congestion, sneezing, and pruritus of the eyes, nose, and ears. The correct answer, "thick rhinorrhea," is not typically associated with allergic rhinitis. Rhinorrhea in allergic rhinitis is usually clear and watery, not thick. Nasal congestion occurs due to the inflammation and swelling of the nasal passages in response to allergens. Sneezing is a common symptom resulting from the body's attempt to expel the allergen. Pruritus of the eyes, nose, and ears is also characteristic of allergic rhinitis, caused by the release of histamine in response to the allergen exposure. Educationally, understanding the hallmark symptoms of allergic rhinitis is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing. Recognizing these symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of allergic rhinitis in children. It is important to differentiate allergic rhinitis from other respiratory conditions to provide optimal care and improve the quality of life for pediatric patients.
Question 2 of 5
Food allergy reactions result from immune responses to glycoproteins. In older children and adults, the most common allergen is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer to the question is A) peanuts. Peanuts are one of the most common allergens in older children and adults due to the presence of a specific protein that triggers an immune response in susceptible individuals. Peanut allergies can range from mild reactions to severe anaphylaxis, making it crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of this common allergen. Cow's milk (option B), eggs (option C), and soybean (option D) are also common food allergens, especially in young children. However, in older children and adults, peanuts tend to be the most prevalent allergen. It is important to note that individual allergies can vary, and any food can potentially trigger an allergic reaction in susceptible individuals. Educationally, understanding common food allergens and their prevalence in different age groups is essential for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of food allergies, knowing how to manage allergic reactions, and educating patients and families on allergen avoidance are critical components of pediatric nursing care. By knowing the most common allergens, healthcare providers can effectively assess, diagnose, and manage food allergies in their pediatric patients.
Question 3 of 5
A term newborn with dysmorphic features, pleural effusions, and juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia is most likely to have which underlying condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Noonan syndrome. In the context of a term newborn with dysmorphic features, pleural effusions, and juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia, Noonan syndrome is the most likely underlying condition. Noonan syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by distinctive facial features, heart defects, short stature, bleeding problems, and developmental delays. Individuals with Noonan syndrome have an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer, including juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia. A) Cockayne syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by growth failure, impaired development, and premature aging. It is not typically associated with pleural effusions or leukemia. B) Fanconi anaemia is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the bone marrow, leading to bone marrow failure and an increased risk of cancer. It is not commonly associated with the specific symptoms described in the question. D) Omenn syndrome is a rare form of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) characterized by erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and eosinophilia. While it can present with some overlapping features, it is not typically associated with pleural effusions or leukemia as described in the question. Educational context: Understanding the clinical features and associations of different genetic disorders is crucial in pediatric nursing practice. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of conditions like Noonan syndrome can aid in early identification, appropriate management, and family support. This knowledge enhances the quality of care provided to pediatric patients and contributes to improved outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant woman with a son affected by spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type 2 is expecting a male fetus. What is the risk that the fetus will be affected?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 1 in 4. This is because spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type 2 is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. When both parents are carriers of the mutated gene responsible for SMA, with each pregnancy, there is a 25% chance that the child will inherit two copies of the mutated gene and be affected by the disorder. Option A) 1 in 2 is incorrect because this would imply a 50% chance of the fetus being affected, which is not the case for an autosomal recessive disorder like SMA. Option C) 1 in 50 and Option D) 1 in 200 are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risk associated with inheriting an autosomal recessive genetic disorder from carrier parents. In an educational context, understanding the principles of genetic inheritance is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients and their families. By grasping concepts like autosomal recessive inheritance patterns, nurses can provide accurate information, support families in genetic counseling, and deliver appropriate care for children with genetic disorders like SMA. This knowledge empowers nurses to offer comprehensive and compassionate care to pediatric patients and their families.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following may increase plasma levels of theophylline EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the pharmacokinetics of medications is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) smoking marijuana. Theophylline is metabolized by the liver through the cytochrome P450 system, specifically the CYP1A2 enzyme. Smoking marijuana can induce this enzyme, leading to increased metabolism and decreased plasma levels of theophylline. Option A) cimetidine is incorrect because it can inhibit the metabolism of theophylline, leading to increased plasma levels. Option B) erythromycin is incorrect as it can also inhibit the metabolism of theophylline, causing elevated plasma levels. Option C) influenza vaccine is incorrect as it does not have a direct impact on the plasma levels of theophylline. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding drug interactions and how various substances or medications can affect the metabolism of a drug like theophylline. It reinforces the need for healthcare providers to consider all factors that may influence drug levels when managing pediatric patients on theophylline therapy. Being aware of these interactions can help prevent adverse effects and optimize therapeutic outcomes for pediatric patients.