The growth phase in which bacteria adapt to the conditions of cultivation is called:

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microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The growth phase in which bacteria adapt to the conditions of cultivation is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lag phase. During the lag phase, bacteria adapt to the new environment before starting to grow and divide. This phase is characterized by a period of low growth as bacteria adjust their metabolism to the available nutrients. The stationary phase (A) is when growth rate equals death rate, the log phase (B) is rapid exponential growth, and the death phase (D) is when cells start to die due to nutrient depletion or accumulation of waste products. Thus, the lag phase is the initial phase where bacteria prepare for growth, making it the correct answer.

Question 2 of 9

A woman hospitalized in the surgical department complains of pain in her lower abdomen and in the small of her back, frequent and painful urination. Urine culture test revealed gram-negative oxidase- positive bacilli that formed green mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can be suspected?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus mirabilis. The patient's symptoms of lower abdominal pain, back pain, frequent/painful urination, and the presence of gram-negative oxidase-positive bacilli forming green mucoid colonies with a specific smell suggest a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known for causing UTIs and is characterized by its swarming motility and distinctive odor. A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections but does not typically cause UTIs with the specific characteristics described. B: Mycoplasma pneumonia is a bacterium that causes respiratory infections, not UTIs. C: Str.pyogenes (Streptococcus pyogenes) is a common cause of strep throat and skin infections, not UTIs. D: Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastritis and peptic ulcers, not UTIs.

Question 3 of 9

Which bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to colonize the skin and mucous membranes of healthcare workers and patients. Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections, including surgical site infections and bloodstream infections, in healthcare settings. Rationale: 1. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing foodborne botulism, not hospital-acquired infections. 2. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, not hospital settings. 3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, which is not commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. In summary, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer as it is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its prevalence in healthcare environments, unlike the other choices which are not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections.

Question 4 of 9

When growing in artificial media, the number of bacteria increases in geometric progression via:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Logarithmic phase. During this phase, bacteria multiply exponentially due to abundant nutrients and favorable conditions. The growth is rapid and follows a geometric progression. In contrast, the Death phase (choice B) occurs when nutrients are depleted, leading to a decline in bacterial numbers. The Stationary phase (choice C) is when growth equals death rates, resulting in a stable population size. Choice D is incorrect because the Logarithmic phase accurately describes the exponential growth pattern of bacteria in artificial media.

Question 5 of 9

Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Question 6 of 9

Fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.5 to 4.0 billion years. Prokaryotic fossils date back to around 3.5 to 4.0 billion years ago, based on scientific evidence. This timeframe aligns with the earliest known evidence of life on Earth. Choices A, C, and D have incorrect timelines that do not correspond to the established age range of prokaryotic fossils. Choice A is too broad and includes a range that extends beyond the known fossil record. Choices C and D have much younger timelines, which do not match the historical evidence of prokaryotic life dating back billions of years.

Question 7 of 9

Decontamination is defined as the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Decontamination is the reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents to make an area safe. This includes cleaning, disinfecting, or sterilizing to eliminate harmful substances. Choice A is incorrect as decontamination doesn't necessarily involve killing all microorganisms. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on stopping growth, not removing existing contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions vegetative organisms, which may not cover all types of contaminants that need to be removed during decontamination. Thus, the correct answer is B as it accurately describes the process of decontamination.

Question 8 of 9

A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following cell organelles contain digestive enzymes?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: peroxisomes. Peroxisomes contain enzymes involved in breaking down fatty acids and detoxifying harmful substances. They do not contain digestive enzymes. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes involved in breaking down waste materials. Chloroplasts are involved in photosynthesis and do not contain digestive enzymes. Mitochondria are involved in energy production and do not contain digestive enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is peroxisomes.

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