ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The gradual rewarming process in the management of hypothermia neonatorum is aimed at
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of hypothermia neonatorum, the gradual rewarming process is aimed at preventing shock. Rapid rewarming can lead to vasodilation, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure and potentially leading to shock. Gradual rewarming helps the body adjust slowly to prevent this. Providing energy (Choice A) is not the primary goal of rewarming in hypothermia. Providing comfort (Choice C) is important but not the main purpose of the rewarming process. Preventing burns (Choice D) is not directly related to the rewarming process but is important to ensure the safety of the neonate during the rewarming process.
Question 2 of 9
What are the risks of cesarean sections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the choices (A, B, and C) are risks associated with cesarean sections. Infection can occur at the incision site, blood loss is a common concern during surgery, and cesarean sections typically have a longer recovery time compared to vaginal delivery. Therefore, all of these risks are potential complications of undergoing a cesarean section. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect individually because they only represent a subset of the risks associated with cesarean sections, while choice D encompasses all potential risks.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.
Question 4 of 9
The MOST immediate action to take for a client in active labor at 32 weeks with a cord prolapse is to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in knee-chest position. This helps relieve pressure on the cord and prevents further compression, ensuring adequate blood flow to the fetus. Pushing the cord back in (A) can worsen the situation. Covering the cord (B) does not address the urgent need to relieve pressure. Immediate vaginal delivery (D) may not be possible or safe at 32 weeks. Placing the client in the knee-chest position is the most immediate and effective action to manage cord prolapse.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days develops hyponatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsmL kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. The adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioners initial treatment is to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution. In hyponatremic hyperosmolality, the primary goal is to correct the low serum sodium levels. A 0.45% sodium chloride solution is hypotonic, which helps to slowly correct the serum sodium concentration without causing rapid shifts in osmolality. Infusing a hypotonic solution will gradually increase the serum sodium levels, addressing the underlying issue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the low serum sodium levels, which is essential in treating hyponatremic hyperosmolality. Infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution (Choice A) or a 5% dextrose in water solution (Choice D) would not correct the low sodium levels. Replenishing volume with a 0.9% sodium chloride solution (Choice C) would not directly
Question 6 of 9
The commonly used inhalational analgesia during labour is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entonox. Entonox, a mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen, is commonly used for inhalational analgesia during labor due to its fast-acting and safe properties. Nitrous oxide provides pain relief without affecting the baby's heart rate or causing sedation. Trilene (B) is not commonly used during labor due to potential side effects on the baby. Oxygen (C) is not an analgesic but is often used in conjunction with Entonox. Nitrous oxide (D) is the active component in Entonox and is the primary analgesic agent in this mixture.
Question 7 of 9
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (3000 ml) because polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid, typically exceeding 2000-2500 ml. A level of 3000 ml is commonly used as a cutoff point for clinical diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall below the threshold typically considered diagnostic for polyhydramnios. Answer A (1500 ml) is too low, while choices C (1900 ml) and D (2500 ml) are below or at the lower end of the range typically associated with polyhydramnios. Therefore, the most appropriate threshold for diagnosing polyhydramnios is when the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds 3000 ml.
Question 8 of 9
Inadequate levels of surfactant in a neonate leads to a condition referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress syndrome. Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension in the alveoli, preventing their collapse. Inadequate levels of surfactant in a neonate result in respiratory distress syndrome. Meconium aspiration syndrome (A) is due to inhalation of meconium by the neonate. Intranatal pneumonia (B) is an infection acquired during birth. Congenital pneumothorax (D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, not directly related to surfactant levels.
Question 9 of 9
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Seat belts. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are commonly caused by seat belts due to the mechanism of injury during a motor vehicle accident. When a sudden deceleration occurs, the body is restrained by the seat belt while the spine continues to move forward, leading to hyperflexion of the spine. This results in distraction forces at the thoracolumbar junction, causing injury. Blunt trauma (choice A) can cause various types of spinal injuries but is not specifically associated with flexion-distraction injuries. Rotational injury (choice B) typically leads to injuries such as fractures or dislocations, not flexion-distraction injuries. Gunshot wounds (choice D) can cause direct spinal damage, but they do not typically result in flexion-distraction injuries.