ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The gradual rewarming process in the management of hypothermia neonatorum is aimed at
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of hypothermia neonatorum, the gradual rewarming process is aimed at preventing shock. Rapid rewarming can lead to vasodilation, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure and potentially leading to shock. Gradual rewarming helps the body adjust slowly to prevent this. Providing energy (Choice A) is not the primary goal of rewarming in hypothermia. Providing comfort (Choice C) is important but not the main purpose of the rewarming process. Preventing burns (Choice D) is not directly related to the rewarming process but is important to ensure the safety of the neonate during the rewarming process.
Question 2 of 9
A clinical feature that is suggestive of hypothermia neonatorum is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Hypothermia neonatorum is characterized by low body temperature in newborns, which can lead to bradycardia as the heart rate decreases in response to the cold stress. Bradycardia is a common physiological response to hypothermia as the body tries to conserve energy and maintain vital functions. Hyperglycemia, hypoventilation, and hyperventilation are not specific clinical features of hypothermia neonatorum. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes, hypoventilation could be a sign of respiratory distress, and hyperventilation is usually seen in response to metabolic acidosis or anxiety.
Question 3 of 9
A major predisposing factor to cardiac disease in pregnancy includes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rheumatic heart disease. This is because rheumatic heart disease is a known risk factor for cardiac complications during pregnancy due to the strain pregnancy places on the heart. Choice B, notable peripheral edema, is a symptom of heart failure but not a predisposing factor. Choice C, easy fatiguability, is a non-specific symptom and not a direct predisposing factor. Choice D, basal crepitation, is a sign of possible lung pathology and not directly related to cardiac disease in pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to an increased risk of cardiac issues during pregnancy.
Question 4 of 9
A maternal febrile condition noted within the first three weeks of postpartum is suggestive of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puerperal pyrexia. Maternal febrile condition within the first three weeks postpartum is suggestive of puerperal pyrexia, which is defined as a fever of 38°C or higher occurring after the first 24 hours post-delivery. This condition is commonly caused by endometritis, a uterine infection following childbirth. Puerperal sepsis (choice A) is a more severe form of infection involving systemic symptoms, while puerperal thrombosis (choice B) refers to blood clot formation. Puerperal shock (choice D) is a life-threatening condition resulting from severe infection or hemorrhage, which may present with fever but is not the primary symptom.
Question 5 of 9
The AGACNP is receiving report from the recovery room on a patient who just had surgical resection for pheochromocytoma. He knows that which class of drugs should be available immediately to manage hypertensive crisis, a possible consequence of physical manipulation of the adrenal medulla?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why D is correct: 1. Arteriolar dilators such as sodium nitroprusside are used to manage hypertensive crisis by rapidly reducing blood pressure. 2. Pheochromocytoma surgery can result in catecholamine release, causing severe hypertension. 3. Arteriolar dilators act directly on blood vessels to lower blood pressure quickly. 4. Alpha-adrenergic antagonists (A) can worsen hypotension, beta-adrenergic antagonists (B) can lead to unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects, and intravenous vasodilators (C) may not act rapidly enough.
Question 6 of 9
Based upon an understanding of the normal relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion, the AGACNP recognizes that which of the following combinations is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to elevated gastrin levels. High gastrin levels stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, resulting in acid hypersecretion. Therefore, the combination of hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma. A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma leads to increased gastrin levels and subsequent acid hypersecretion. B: Hypergastrinemia and acid hyposecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma is associated with acid hypersecretion, not hyposecretion. C: Hypogastrinemia and acid hypersecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma causes elevated gastrin levels and acid hypersecretion, not hypogastrinemia. In summary, the correct answer D aligns with the pathophysiology of gastrinoma, while the
Question 7 of 9
Pneumatosis, or gas cysts, may form in the wall anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract in some cases, they will produce symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, diarrhea with mucus, and excess flatulence. Treatment of pneumatosis most often involves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy involves breathing pure oxygen in a pressurized room, which can help reduce gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract by increasing oxygen delivery to tissues. This promotes healing and reduces symptoms associated with pneumatosis. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen therapy in treating pneumatosis, as it does not provide the same level of pressurized oxygen delivery to tissues. C: Surgical resection may be considered in severe cases of pneumatosis where conservative treatments have failed, but it is not the first-line treatment option. D: Treatment of underlying disease is important in managing pneumatosis, but it may not directly address the gas cysts themselves. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy specifically targets the gas cysts to alleviate symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children. This is due to the fact that virilizing tumors can be associated with conditions like adrenocortical carcinoma, which is a malignant tumor. In contrast, feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas (choice A) and are not the most common type of adrenal tumor (choice B). Additionally, virilizing tumors in women can be localized to different parts of the adrenal gland, not just the cortex (choice C). Therefore, choice D is the most accurate statement among the options provided.
Question 9 of 9
Specific management for incomplete uterine rupture:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.