ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The goal of androgen therapy in men is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Androgen therapy in men, typically testosterone replacement, aims to boost libido and treat erectile dysfunction by restoring normal androgen levels, countering hypogonadism's effects like reduced sexual drive. Decreasing libido contradicts its purpose, as low testosterone already dims desire. It doesn't release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)-exogenous androgens may suppress FSH and LH via feedback inhibition. Increasing luteinizing hormone (LH) isn't the goal; therapy bypasses LH by directly providing testosterone. Raising libido aligns with correcting symptoms of androgen deficiency, improving quality of life and sexual function, a primary clinical indication supported by its action on androgen receptors in sexual tissues.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with hypotension and bradycardia. The patient indicates that one of her physicians recently prescribed three new medications to her current list of 10 medications per day. Based on this information, which statement would be the most accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy-13 drugs-raises interaction risks (e.g., beta-blockers plus CCBs causing hypotension/bradycardia), a common adverse outcome in complex regimens. Allergy lacks specific signs (e.g., rash). Non-compliance isn't indicated-she reports use. Transient effects need time evidence. Polypharmacy fits symptoms, per pharmacodynamics.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse assesses the client might be experiencing toxicity from colchicine. Which statement by the client would most likely confirm the nurse's suspicion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Colchicine toxicity causes GI distress-nausea, vomiting, pain-per overdose data, a hallmark sign. Joint pain is gout, not toxicity. Vision/taste changes or cramps aren't linked-GI rules. This confirms suspicion, per assessment.
Question 4 of 5
A 24-year-old sexually active woman presents to her primary care physician with vaginal itching and a greenish, frothy vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend is asymptomatic. She is prescribed metronidazole for Trichomonas vaginalis. Which of the following should be told to avoid while taking metronidazole?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole treats Trichomonas vaginalis, and alcohol must be avoided. It inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing a disulfiram-like reaction (nausea, flushing). Aspirin , caffeine , grapefruit juice , and machinery (E) lack this interaction. This precaution prevents severe discomfort, ensuring treatment adherence.
Question 5 of 5
A 31-year-old woman is planning to take a 7-day cruise to the Caribbean islands. She has never been on a ship before and fears developing motion sickness. She purchases scopolamine transdermal patch. When is the best time for her to place the patch to maximize drug efficacy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scopolamine prevents motion sickness via anticholinergic action. Applying prior to symptoms -ensures prophylaxis. After nausea (A, B) or vomiting is too late. Memory loss is a side effect, not timing. Preemptive use maximizes efficacy for her cruise.