The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - Check for a gag reflex before allowing the patient to drink. This is important after a bronchoscopy to prevent aspiration. Step 1: Assessing gag reflex ensures the patient can protect their airway. Step 2: Aspiration risk is high post-bronchoscopy due to sedation and possible throat numbness. Step 3: Allowing fluids without confirming gag reflex can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Other choices are incorrect. A: Ordering a meal immediately is inappropriate after NPO period. B: Encouraging fluids without assessing gag reflex may lead to aspiration. C: Monitoring consciousness is important but not directly related to post-bronchoscopy care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client’s wife. She is the primary source of information as she witnessed the event firsthand and provided relevant details. In this scenario, the wife's account of the event is crucial in understanding the sequence of events leading to the client's unconscious condition. Medical documents (B), test results (C), and assessment data (D) are all secondary sources of information that may provide additional data but do not have the same level of immediacy or firsthand knowledge as the client's wife. In an emergency situation, information from a reliable eyewitness is often the most valuable initial source for healthcare providers to make critical decisions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active listening. Active listening is crucial when working with a dying client and their family as it involves fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said. This technique helps the nurse show empathy, build trust, and provide emotional support. By actively listening, the nurse can better understand the client's needs and concerns, which is essential in end-of-life care. Reflection (A) involves paraphrasing what the client said, which may not always be appropriate in this sensitive situation. Clarification (B) and Interpretation (C) involve adding one's own understanding or perspective, which can be intrusive and may not align with the client's feelings or beliefs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.90% sodium chloride. When administering a hypotonic solution like 0.45% sodium chloride or 5% dextrose in water, water moves into the cells causing them to swell. This can exacerbate symptoms of hypovolemia such as low blood pressure and decreased perfusion. However, 0.90% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution and will not further exacerbate hypovolemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are hypotonic solutions that can worsen hypovolemic symptoms by causing cellular swelling.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because ordinal petition in the family is not a recognized risk factor for developing cancer. Age is a well-known risk factor as cancer incidence increases with age. Race can also influence cancer risk due to genetic and environmental factors. Lifestyle choices such as smoking, diet, and physical activity can significantly impact the likelihood of developing cancer. In contrast, ordinal petition in the family does not have a direct association with cancer risk.