The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:

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Question 1 of 9

The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the ff is a sign or symptom characteristic of the later stages of TB?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoptysis. In the later stages of TB, the infection can lead to damage in the lungs, causing blood to be coughed up (hemoptysis). This is a serious symptom indicating advanced disease progression. Fatigue (A), anorexia (B), and weight loss (D) are common symptoms of TB but can occur in earlier stages as well. Hemoptysis specifically indicates more severe lung involvement, making it characteristic of later stages.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection. 2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer. 3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child. C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40. D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate" is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems involve issues that require both nursing and medical interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses focus on the nurse's role in addressing the patient's health issues. Therefore, the nurse should revise the collaborative problem part to accurately reflect the collaborative aspect of the patient's care. Etiology (A), nursing diagnosis (B), and defining characteristic (D) are not the parts of the diagnostic statement that need revision in this scenario.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous assessment allows for timely identification of changes in the client's condition. This is crucial for providing appropriate and timely interventions. Assessing the client only at specific times (choices B and C) may lead to missing important changes. Choice D is incorrect because assessments should not be limited to physician rounds; they should be ongoing to ensure comprehensive care.

Question 6 of 9

The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient do which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing the 4th (trochlear) and 6th (abducens) cranial nerves involves assessing eye movements. The trochlear nerve controls downward and inward eye movement, while the abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement. Asking the patient to follow the finger with their eyes tests the function of both nerves simultaneously. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically target the 4th and 6th cranial nerves, making them incorrect options.

Question 7 of 9

A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is an early sign of anemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pallor. Pallor, which refers to paleness of the skin, is an early sign of anemia due to decreased red blood cell levels. Anemia causes reduced oxygen delivery to tissues, leading to paleness. Palpitations (A) may occur in anemia but are not an early sign. Glossitis (C) and weight loss (D) are not typically early signs of anemia and are more commonly associated with other health conditions.

Question 9 of 9

What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying potential complications that may arise due to the client's health issue. This is important for developing effective interventions to prevent or manage these complications. Choice A focuses on the client's problem itself, not on potential complications. Choice C is related to nursing diagnosis, not collaborative problems. Choice D refers to medical diagnosis, which is different from collaborative problems involving nursing and other healthcare disciplines. Therefore, B is the correct focus for a diagnostic statement in a collaborative problem scenario.

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