The gerontological nurse practitioner performs a speculum examination for a 71-year-old female patient without symptoms, and finds a thin, whitish, non-odorous mucoid discharge high in the patient’s vagina. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate intervention is to:

The gerontological nurse practitioner performs a speculum examination for a 71-year-old female patient without symptoms, and finds a thin, whitish, non-odorous mucoid discharge high in the patient’s vagina. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate intervention is to:

A 16-year-old adolescent is 6 weeks pregnant. The pregnancy has exacerbated her acne. She asks her CNM if she can resume taking her isotretinoin (Accutane) prescription, a category X drug, prescribed by her dermatologist. What is the most appropriate response by the CNM:

A nurse consults a drug manual before giving a medication to an 80-year-old patient. The manual states that older-adult patients are at increased risk for hepatic side effects. Which action by the nurse is correct?

A patient is taking drug $\mathrm{X}$ and receives a new prescription for drug $\mathrm{Y}$, which is listed as an inducing agent. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this patient may require doses of drug

A child will receive 750 mg of an antibiotic for 10 days. The child attends day care. The drug may be dosed in several ways and is available in two concentrations. Which dosing regimen will the nurse discuss with the child’s provider?