The generation time of Escherichia Coli is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 20 minutes. Escherichia coli has a short generation time, typically around 20 minutes. This means that under ideal conditions, one bacterium can divide and produce two daughter cells every 20 minutes. This rapid growth rate is a characteristic of E. coli and is important in various fields such as microbiology and biotechnology. Choice B (60 minutes) and Choice C (20 hours) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical generation time of E. coli. Choice D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is too long for the generation time of E. coli.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: intravenous administration. This route bypasses the first-pass metabolism, allowing the drug to directly enter the bloodstream for immediate distribution. In contrast, on the skin (A) and sublingual (D) routes have slower absorption rates due to barriers like skin layers or mucous membranes. Intramuscular (C) absorption is slower than intravenous due to slower perfusion rates in muscle tissues. Overall, intravenous administration provides the fastest and most direct route for drug absorption, making it the most rapid method.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba gingivalis. Firstly, it is important to note that Entamoeba gingivalis is commonly found in the oral cavity, specifically in carious cavities. Secondly, Entamoeba gingivalis belongs to the Sarcodina class, which is characterized by their amoeboid movement using pseudopods. This protozoa is associated with oral health issues, particularly in individuals with poor oral hygiene. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: B: Entamoeba histolutica is known for causing amoebic dysentery, not commonly associated with oral cavities. C: Entamoeba coli is typically found in the human large intestine, not in oral cavities. D: Amoeba proteus is a free-living amoeba commonly used in laboratory studies and not typically associated with oral cavity infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The optochin sensitivity test is used to differentiate Pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae) from other streptococci. Optochin sensitivity is a characteristic feature of Pneumococcal, as it inhibits its growth. The test involves placing optochin discs on a culture plate and observing the zone of inhibition around the disc for Pneumococcal. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococci, and Group A streptococci do not exhibit optochin sensitivity, making them incorrect choices. In summary, the optochin sensitivity test is specific to Pneumococcal, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Artificial food media. Treponema pallidum is a fastidious bacterium that cannot be cultivated on artificial food media due to its complex nutritional requirements. It can be cultivated on cell lines and intratesticular in rabbits. Therefore, option A is incorrect. Option B and C are correct.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The patient has symptoms of fever, enlarged lymph nodes, red and tender skin, which are indicative of systemic infection. 2. The inguinal lymph nodes in plague become enlarged, tender, and painful, forming buboes. 3. The presence of acute serohemorrhagic inflammation in the lymph node is characteristic of plague. 4. Plague is a zoonotic bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, commonly transmitted through fleas from rodents. 5. Brucellosis, anthrax, and tularemia do not typically present with inguinal lymph node involvement and acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. Summary: - Brucellosis: Usually presents with flu-like symptoms, joint pain, and fever, not inguinal lymph node enlargement. - Anthrax: Presents with skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms, not inguinal lymph node involvement. - Tularemia: Presents with fever, skin ulcers,

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because sanitary control is crucial for monitoring the quality of a wide range of essential services to ensure public health and safety. Food safety, drinking water quality, cleanliness in restaurants, hygiene in healthcare settings, and transportation systems all fall under the purview of sanitary control. Therefore, option A is the most comprehensive and accurate choice. Option B is incorrect because it does not include monitoring restaurants, health care services, and transport, which are important aspects of sanitary control. Option C is incorrect as it excludes transportation, an essential area that requires sanitary monitoring. Option D is incorrect as it does not cover health care services, which are critical for ensuring public health and safety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest staphylococci. 2. Catalase-positive indicates staphylococci since streptococci are catalase-negative. 3. Coagulase-positive further confirms Staphylococcus aureus, distinguishing it from other staphylococci. Summary: B is incorrect as Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. C is incorrect as Micrococcus luteus is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D is incorrect as Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staphylococcus. Staphylococcus is a common bacteria that can cause neonatal conjunctivitis, also known as "sticky eye." Staphylococcal conjunctivitis presents with symptoms like eye redness, discharge, and swelling. Streptococcus (choice A) typically causes throat infections, herpes simplex (choice B) causes genital or oral sores, and Escherichia (choice D) is a bacteria commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and is not typically associated with neonatal conjunctivitis. Therefore, the most likely pathogen causing "sticky eye" in newborns is Staphylococcus.