ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following viruses are referred to the Filoviridae family
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Marburg virus and Ebola virus belong to the Filoviridae family. These viruses are characterized by their filamentous shape and are known to cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans. Both viruses have caused outbreaks with high mortality rates. Choice A (Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses) are not part of the Filoviridae family. They belong to the Arenaviridae family, which also includes viruses that cause hemorrhagic fevers. Choice B (Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus) are arboviruses belonging to the Togaviridae family, which are not related to the Filoviridae family. Choice D (Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus) are part of the Nairoviridae and Hantaviridae families, respectively, and not the Filoviridae family.
Question 2 of 9
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which group of eukaryotic organisms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite known to cause toxoplasmosis. It belongs to the group of eukaryotic organisms called protozoans because it is a single-celled organism with complex cellular structures. Protozoans are characterized by their ability to move and perform essential functions independently. Algae (choice A) are photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms, fungi (choice B) are non-photosynthetic eukaryotes that include molds and yeasts, and helminths (choice D) are multicellular parasitic worms. Therefore, the correct answer is C because Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite.
Question 3 of 9
The most common causative agent of bacterial meningitis are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Neisseria meningitidis are the most common causative agents of bacterial meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae is often seen in children, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common in adults, and Neisseria meningitidis is common in adolescents and young adults. Choice A is incorrect because although Streptococcus group B and Listeria monocytogenes can cause meningitis, E. Coli K1 is not a common causative agent. Choice C is incorrect because Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are not typically associated with bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect as there are known causative agents for bacterial meningitis.
Question 4 of 9
A 45-year-old patient complains of body temperature rise up to 40oC, general weakness, headache, painfulness and spastic muscle contractions around the wound in the shin. He received this wound 5 days ago when working in his garden. He requested no medical care back then. What wound infection can be suspected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The patient's symptoms of muscle contractions, fever, and wound history suggest tetanus, caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria commonly found in soil. The spastic muscle contractions around the wound are classic for tetanus due to the neurotoxin produced by the bacteria. General weakness and headache are also common symptoms. B: Anthrax is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms such as skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, and gastrointestinal symptoms. C: Erysipelas is characterized by red, swollen patches on the skin, not consistent with the symptoms described. D: Gram-positive is not a specific diagnosis but a broad category of bacteria. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, which is a Gram-positive bacterium, but this choice does not provide a specific infection diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the statements below IS NOT CORRECT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.
Question 6 of 9
What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.
Question 7 of 9
Methods typically used to diagnose bacterial infections of the reproductive system include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ allows direct visualization of bacteria causing the infection. 2. Microscopic examination of urine for organisms can help identify any bacteria present in the urinary tract. 3. Both methods are specific for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as biopsy is invasive and not typically used for diagnosing bacterial infections. - Choice C is incorrect as fecal samples and urine protein tests are not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. - Choice D is incorrect as antibody agglutination and coagulation tests are not primary methods for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.
Question 8 of 9
Examples for chemical vaccines are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Shiga anatoxin. This is because the Salk and Sabin vaccines are actually for polio, not chemical vaccines. HPV vaccine is a biological vaccine, not a chemical one. Shiga anatoxin is a chemical vaccine used against Shigella bacteria, making it the only correct choice for chemical vaccines in this question.
Question 9 of 9
A Gram-negative bacterium producing a blue-green pigment and having a fruity odor was isolated from a patient's wound infection. What is the likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Blue-green pigment + fruity odor are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. 2. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with wound infections. 3. P. aeruginosa is known for its ability to produce pyocyanin (blue-green pigment) and a sweet, fruity odor. 4. Other choices like E. coli, K. pneumoniae, and P. mirabilis do not typically produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. 5. Therefore, based on the characteristics observed, the likely causative agent is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Summary of other choices: - Escherichia coli: Does not produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. - Klebsiella pneumoniae: Does not typically produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor. - Proteus mirabilis: Does not produce blue-green pigment or fruity odor.