The following spore-forming bacteria can be preserved in soil over a long period of time: clostridia of tetanus, botulism, anaerobic gas infection. Name the way with which these microorganisms get into soil.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Clostridia of tetanus, botulism, anaerobic gas infection are spore-forming bacteria. Step 2: Spores are resistant structures that allow bacteria to survive in harsh conditions. Step 3: Feces contain these spore-forming bacteria due to contamination. Step 4: When feces are deposited on soil, the spores of these bacteria enter the soil. Step 5: Spores can remain dormant in soil for long periods. Summary: Choice A is correct as spore-forming bacteria enter soil through feces, which act as a source of contamination. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the direct introduction of spores into soil like feces do.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anatoxin. An anatoxin is a toxin that has been rendered harmless while retaining its ability to stimulate an immune response. Gas gangrene is caused by the toxins produced by Clostridium perfringens, not the bacteria itself. Therefore, vaccination with an anatoxin can trigger the immune system to produce antibodies against the toxin, providing immunity against the disease. A: Killed whole cell vaccine - Gas gangrene is caused by toxins, not the whole bacterium. This type of vaccine may not be effective in preventing the disease. C: There is no specific prevention by vaccination - This is incorrect, as vaccination with an anatoxin can prevent gas gangrene. D: Alive attenuated vaccine - Attenuated vaccines contain live, weakened forms of the pathogen. However, for gas gangrene prevention, targeting the specific toxin with an anatoxin vaccine is more appropriate.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesive factors that enable it to attach to the bladder and cause infection. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, none of which are typically associated with UTIs. E. coli's prevalence in the gut and its pathogenic mechanisms make it the leading cause of UTIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Legionellae are typically found in natural water sources such as lakes, rivers, and soil. Legionellae thrive in aquatic environments and can also be present in mud. Choice B is incorrect as Legionellae are not limited to infected humans but are also found in the natural environment. Choice C is incorrect as Legionellae are not primarily associated with infected animals. Choice D is incorrect as Legionellae do have natural reservoirs in water and soil.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: eubiosis. Eubiosis refers to a state of balance and harmony among the species in the normal microflora. This term signifies a healthy and stable microbial community. Dysbiosis (A) is the opposite, indicating an imbalance or disruption in the microflora. Eukaryota (B) refers to organisms with cells containing a nucleus, not specifically related to the balance of microflora. Dispersion (C) refers to the spreading or distribution of microorganisms, not specifically related to their balance. In summary, eubiosis best describes the dynamic balance of species in the normal microflora, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction haemagglutination inhibition. This method is used to detect antibodies against influenza viruses by measuring the ability of the patient's serum to inhibit haemagglutination. This is a specific and sensitive technique for detecting influenza antibodies. A: Agglutination reaction is not specific for influenza viruses and may give false positives. B: Precipitation reaction in agar gel is not typically used for detecting influenza antibodies. D: Ration haemagglutination is not a standard method for detecting influenza antibodies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: - A: The mycelium is indeed made up of intertwined hyphae, which are the branching filaments of fungi. - B: Part of the mycelium does grow into the medium to acquire nutrients, forming the substrate mycelium. - C: Some parts of the mycelium remain above the medium to aid in reproduction and spore dispersal, forming the aerial mycelium. Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are correct, making choice D the correct answer. The mycelium exhibits both intertwined hyphae, substrate mycelium, and aerial mycelium to facilitate different functions.