The following pathological features is true regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) can arise from either B cells or T cells. B cell NHL is more common than T cell NHL. Step 2: The B cell phenotype is predominant in NHL, making choice B correct. Step 3: Classical Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma, not NHL, making choice A incorrect. Step 4: NHL can involve non-contiguous lymph nodes, ruling out choice C. Step 5: NHL can present with leukemic involvement, refuting choice D. Overall, the B cell phenotype being more common in NHL makes choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Hereditary spherocytosis is associated with splenomegaly due to the spleen's increased destruction of abnormal red blood cells. In this condition, red blood cells have a spherical shape, making them more prone to destruction by the spleen. Chronic renal failure (A) is not typically associated with splenomegaly. Aplastic anemia (B) is characterized by bone marrow failure and does not directly involve the spleen. Sickle cell anemia (D) leads to splenomegaly in children but not in adults due to splenic sequestration crises, making it less likely to be the correct choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: SLE. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by skin bleeding without low platelet count. SLE does not typically cause this type of purpura, as it primarily affects multiple organs through immune complex deposition. Vasculitis, uraemia, and hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia can all lead to non-thrombocytopenic purpura due to various mechanisms involving blood vessel inflammation, kidney dysfunction, or genetic defects in blood vessel formation, respectively.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: lithium. Lithium does not cause hemolytic anemia because it does not affect red blood cell destruction. Penicillin (A), Quinidine (C), and Methyldopa (D) are known to cause hemolytic anemia by various mechanisms, such as immune-mediated destruction or oxidative damage to red blood cells. In contrast, lithium's mechanism of action does not involve direct harm to red blood cells, making it the correct choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, hereditary spherocytosis. In this condition, the presence of jaundice and splenomegaly is due to the destruction of red blood cells by the spleen, leading to increased MCH. In liver cirrhosis (choice A), jaundice is due to impaired liver function. Thalassemia major (choice B) presents with severe anemia, not jaundice. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (choice C) is characterized by hemolytic anemia and not typically associated with splenomegaly and jaundice. Therefore, the presence of jaundice, splenomegaly, and increased MCH points towards hereditary spherocytosis.