ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam A ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following is suitable for treatment of acute dystonia as a result of metoclopramide treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a D2 antagonist, causes acute dystonia (e.g., oculogyric crisis). Procyclidine, an anticholinergic, rapidly reverses this IV, relaxing muscles, a suitable treatment. Benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl) works orally but is slower. Levodopa and bromocriptine, dopamine agonists, treat Parkinson's, not dystonia from dopamine blockade. Risperidone worsens it. IV procyclidine's speed is critical in acute settings, restoring normal movement effectively.
Question 2 of 9
Which statement is accurate regarding medications that end up being secreted in bile?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Biliary secretion (e.g., rifampin) leads to fecal excretion for some drugs, while others recycle enterohepatically, prolonging action. Not all are fecal-bound-recirculation varies. Gallbladder stores bile, not metabolizes. Many drugs use bile, not rare. Recirculation reflects pharmacokinetics, affecting duration.
Question 3 of 9
A priority nursing assessment for a patient who is to receive an alpha- or beta-adrenergic blocking agent would be what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most serious adverse effect would be severe bradycardia, so the nurse’s priority would be assessing the heart rate. If the patient were identified as having diabetes, then monitoring blood glucose levels would become important because these drugs can aggravate diabetes by blocking sympathetic response including masking the usual signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. Respiratory rate could be impacted if the patient was identified as having a condition causing bronchospasm and diabetes because the combination could worsen both conditions. Measuring urine output should be part of the patient’s care, but it is not the priority assessment.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client receiving IV heparin. Which finding requires immediate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin anticoagulates, monitored by aPTT (therapeutic: 60-80 seconds). An aPTT of 90 seconds indicates over-anticoagulation, risking bleeding, needing immediate action (e.g., stop infusion). Bruising and redness are minor. Platelets of 150,000 are normal. Prolonged aPTT aligns with heparin's effect, critical in therapy where bleeding is a threat, making B the finding requiring swift response.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Alprazolam?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insomnia is not a common side effect of Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to treat anxiety and panic disorders. Common side effects of Alprazolam include dizziness, drowsiness, and lethargy. However, it is not typically associated with causing insomnia as a side effect. If a person experiences unusual symptoms while taking Alprazolam, they should consult their healthcare provider for guidance.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements regarding colloid administration does the nurse identify as being true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "Dextran therapy can cause anaphylaxis or renal failure" is true. Dextran is a type of colloid solution that can cause allergic reactions such as anaphylaxis in some individuals. It can also lead to kidney damage, which is why monitoring for signs of renal failure is crucial when administering Dextran. As a result of these potential risks, dextran therapy should be used cautiously and patients should be closely monitored for adverse reactions.
Question 7 of 9
A 22-year-old man has taken an overdose of sleeping pills after learning that he did not receive the job he has recently been interviewed for. He is found by his roommate conscious but not able to completely follow commands. The roommate calls the local poison control center. Instructions are given to self-administer syrup of ipecac while waiting for the rescue squad to respond. This agent has a mechanism of action that involves which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Syrup of ipecac induces vomiting in overdose. It stimulates the chemotactic trigger zone in the medulla-prompting emesis. Gag reflex stimulation is secondary. Suppressing pressures , gag reflex , or motor cortex (E) don't apply. Though less used now, ipecac's CNS action expels pills, aiding this acute scenario, distinct from mechanical or suppressive effects.
Question 8 of 9
Antilipemic drug therapy is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse is providing instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instructions will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal or unusual bleeding could be A sign of A potential side effect or complication related to antilipemic drug therapy. Yellow discoloration of The skin may indicate liver issues, which could be A serious side effect of certain antilipemics. Therefore, it is important for The patient to report these symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider for further evaluation.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is performing a health history on a patient who is ordered to begin therapy with valproic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Valproic acid is metabolized in the liver, and patients with liver disease may have impaired liver function, which can lead to reduced metabolism of the drug and potential toxicity. Therefore, a patient with a history of liver disease starting therapy with valproic acid would be a cause for concern for the nurse. Monitoring of liver function tests would be crucial in this patient population to ensure the medication is being safely metabolized.