ATI RN
ATI PN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The following is suitable for treatment of acute dystonia as a result of metoclopramide treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a D2 antagonist, causes acute dystonia (e.g., oculogyric crisis). Procyclidine, an anticholinergic, rapidly reverses this IV, relaxing muscles, a suitable treatment. Benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl) works orally but is slower. Levodopa and bromocriptine, dopamine agonists, treat Parkinson's, not dystonia from dopamine blockade. Risperidone worsens it. IV procyclidine's speed is critical in acute settings, restoring normal movement effectively.
Question 2 of 5
A 33-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant with a porcine heart valve is at risk for thromboembolism. Which of the following is the best agent to use in this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy and a porcine valve increase thromboembolism risk. Heparin , an anticoagulant, is safe in pregnancy. Streptokinase , a thrombolytic, is risky. TED stockings prevent but don't treat systemic risk. Warfarin is teratogenic. Heparin's non-placental crossing ensures fetal safety while managing her condition.
Question 3 of 5
A 22-year-old man has taken an overdose of sleeping pills after learning that he did not receive the job he has recently been interviewed for. He is found by his roommate conscious but not able to completely follow commands. The roommate calls the local poison control center. Instructions are given to self-administer syrup of ipecac while waiting for the rescue squad to respond. This agent has a mechanism of action that involves which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Syrup of ipecac induces vomiting in overdose. It stimulates the chemotactic trigger zone in the medulla-prompting emesis. Gag reflex stimulation is secondary. Suppressing pressures , gag reflex , or motor cortex (E) don't apply. Though less used now, ipecac's CNS action expels pills, aiding this acute scenario, distinct from mechanical or suppressive effects.
Question 4 of 5
The following is suitable for treatment of acute dystonia as a result of metoclopramide treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a D2 antagonist, causes acute dystonia (e.g., oculogyric crisis). Procyclidine, an anticholinergic, rapidly reverses this IV, relaxing muscles, a suitable treatment. Benzhexol (trihexyphenidyl) works orally but is slower. Levodopa and bromocriptine, dopamine agonists, treat Parkinson's, not dystonia from dopamine blockade. Risperidone worsens it. IV procyclidine's speed is critical in acute settings, restoring normal movement effectively.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is performing a health history on a patient who is ordered to begin therapy with valproic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Valproic acid is metabolized in the liver, and patients with liver disease may have impaired liver function, which can lead to reduced metabolism of the drug and potential toxicity. Therefore, a patient with a history of liver disease starting therapy with valproic acid would be a cause for concern for the nurse. Monitoring of liver function tests would be crucial in this patient population to ensure the medication is being safely metabolized.