The following information is best placed in which category? 'The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD) in 1999.'

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Vital Signs Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

The following information is best placed in which category? 'The patient had a stent placed in the left anterior descending artery (LAD) in 1999.'

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adult illnesses. The information about a stent placed in an artery relates to a medical procedure for a cardiovascular condition, which falls under adult illnesses. This category encompasses conditions and treatments related to the health of adults. Surgeries (B) would be too broad and not specific to the medical context provided. Obstetrics/gynecology (C) focuses on women's reproductive health and pregnancy-related issues, which are not relevant here. Psychiatric (D) pertains to mental health and psychological disorders, which is also not applicable to the given information.

Question 2 of 5

Which assessment technique is used to evaluate for the presence of fluid in the abdominal cavity?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shifting dullness. This technique involves percussing the abdomen to determine if there is a change from tympanic to dull sound while the patient changes positions. This change in sound indicates the presence of fluid in the abdominal cavity, known as ascites. Rebound tenderness (A) is used to assess for peritoneal irritation, not fluid. Light palpation (C) is used to assess superficial abdominal tenderness and masses, not fluid. Deep palpation (D) is used to assess for deeper abdominal masses or organ enlargement, not fluid.

Question 3 of 5

A 60-year-old man presents with difficulty swallowing. He reports that the difficulty has been present for several months and is associated with weight loss. He has a history of smoking and heavy alcohol use. On examination, he has a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely cause of the man's symptoms is esophageal cancer (Choice A) due to his age, symptoms of dysphagia and weight loss, history of smoking and heavy alcohol use, and the presence of a palpable mass in the upper abdomen on examination. Esophageal cancer commonly presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and risk factors such as smoking and alcohol use. The palpable mass indicates a more advanced disease stage. Choice B (Achalasia) is less likely due to the presence of a palpable mass, which is not typical of achalasia. Choice C (Gastroesophageal reflux disease) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation rather than dysphagia and weight loss. Choice D (Peptic ulcer disease) is less likely as it does not typically cause a palpable mass or significant weight loss.

Question 4 of 5

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with a complaint of shortness of breath on exertion and swelling in his legs. His physical examination reveals bilateral pedal edema, crackles at the lung bases, and jugular venous distention. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Congestive heart failure. Given the patient's history of hypertension, presenting symptoms of shortness of breath, pedal edema, crackles in the lungs, and jugular venous distention are classic signs of congestive heart failure. These symptoms are indicative of fluid overload and impaired cardiac function leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs and extremities. Other choices can be ruled out based on the lack of corresponding symptoms and physical examination findings related to those conditions. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (A) typically presents with chronic cough, wheezing, and sputum production. Pulmonary embolism (C) presents with sudden onset dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia. Renal failure (D) may present with decreased urine output, electrolyte abnormalities, and signs of uremia.

Question 5 of 5

A 25-year-old woman presents with a complaint of dizziness and fainting. On examination, her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postural hypotension. This condition typically presents with symptoms of dizziness and fainting upon standing due to a drop in blood pressure. In this case, the blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which is exacerbated by changes in position. Acute myocardial infarction (B) presents with chest pain and ECG changes, not dizziness. Arrhythmia (C) can cause palpitations but not necessarily dizziness. Hyperthyroidism (D) can cause palpitations and weight loss but not typically dizziness and fainting.

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