ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following drugs may be administered transcutaneously to produce their systemic therapeutic effect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTN patches deliver the drug transdermally, bypassing first-pass metabolism and providing systemic therapeutic action.
Question 2 of 9
The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, work by forming covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and DNA strands. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, ultimately leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes the alkylating agents effective in targeting rapidly dividing cancer cells.
Question 3 of 9
Which condition does the nurse identify as a late manifestation of hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Palpitations are a late manifestation of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium plays a vital role in maintaining normal heart function. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to abnormal heart rhythms, including palpitations. Other symptoms of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, lethargy, and even hypotension, may be present before palpitations occur. Therefore, palpitations are considered a late manifestation of hypokalemia that signals significant potassium depletion and should be addressed promptly to prevent serious cardiac complications.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by promoting potassium retention in the body. Therefore, patients taking spironolactone are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and even cardiac arrest. It is important for the nurse to monitor patients on spironolactone for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia, such as weakness, numbness, tingling, or an irregular heartbeat. Other diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide (A), furosemide (B), and acetazolamide (C) do not typically cause hyperkalemia as they work to decrease potassium levels in the body.
Question 5 of 9
The patient has been prescribed dextromethorphan (Delsym). What medication information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dextromethorphan suppresses cough but with alcohol or overdose can cause CNS effects like slurred speech . Smoking isn't directly relevant. It acts within 15-30 minutes, not an hour . Choice D instructs on recognizing toxicity, ensuring safety and prompt reporting.
Question 6 of 9
A 17-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough and nasal congestion. He has been taking various prescription cough and cold medicines but did not know their names. A urine drug screen is positive for amphetamines. When confronted with this information, he vehemently denies amphetamine use. What is the best explanation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive amphetamine screen with cough/cold medicine use suggests a false positive from ephedrine . Ephedrine, in decongestants, cross-reacts with amphetamine assays. Codeine and marijuana don't. Lying or sample mix-up (E) are less likely given his denial and context. This common false positive explains the discrepancy.
Question 7 of 9
Codeine sulfate is prescribed to a client with a severe back pain. Which of the following side effect is associated with this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Codeine sulfate is an opioid medication commonly used to relieve pain. However, one of the most common side effects associated with the use of opioids like codeine is constipation. Opioids slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation in many patients. It is important for healthcare providers to educate patients about this side effect and recommend measures to prevent or manage constipation, such as increasing fluid and fiber intake, exercise, and in some cases, the use of stool softeners or laxatives.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse assumes care of a patient in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). The patient had abdominal surgery and is receiving intravenous morphine sulfate for pain. The patient is asleep and has not voided since prior to surgery. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and notes hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse will contact the surgeon primarily to report which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary concern in this scenario is respiratory depression. The patient receiving intravenous morphine sulfate with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates hypoventilation, which can progress to respiratory failure. This poses a critical risk to the patient's safety and requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications, such as respiratory arrest. Contacting the surgeon to report this condition is essential for prompt assessment and appropriate management. While paralytic ileus, somnolence, and urinary retention are also potential concerns, respiratory depression takes precedence due to its life-threatening nature.
Question 9 of 9
What would be the teaching priority for a diabetic patient being treated with a nonselective beta-blocker?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because the beta-blockers stop the signs and symptoms of a sympathetic stress reaction, the signs and symptoms associated with hypo- or hyperglycemia, the diabetic patient taking a beta-blocker will need to understand this and learn new indicators of these reactions. Taking his pulse, weekly weighing, and avoiding smoke-filled rooms are good health practices and should be done, but not specifically needed by a diabetic patient taking a beta-blocker. The nurse should emphasize the importance of recognizing new signs of blood glucose fluctuations.