ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following drugs commonly cause hepatotoxicity:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Paracetamol overdose can cause severe hepatotoxicity due to the accumulation of toxic metabolites.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is preparing to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which patient would be best treated with this transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are typically transfused to patients with severe anemia, where the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is significantly reduced. PRBCs are concentrated units of red blood cells that can quickly increase the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Patients with severe anemia may experience symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and pale skin. Transfusion of PRBCs helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues and organs, alleviating these symptoms and improving the patient's overall well-being.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a well-known stage actor who has suddenly developed severe stage fright that is preventing him from working. What drug does the nurse suspect will be prescribed for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: One of the indications for use of propranolol is prevention of stage fright, which is a sympathetic stress reaction to a particular situation. None of the other options are indicated for this use. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 4 of 9
The following drugs commonly cause hepatotoxicity:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Paracetamol overdose can cause severe hepatotoxicity due to the accumulation of toxic metabolites.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse enters a patient’s room to find that his heart rate is 120, his blood pressure is 70/50, and he has red blotching of his face and neck. Vancomycin is running intravenous piggyback. The nurse believes that this patient is experiencing a severe adverse effect called red man syndrome. What action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction to vancomycin, characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. The nurse should immediately stop the infusion to prevent further reaction and call the health care provider for further instructions. Reducing the infusion rate may help in mild cases, but in this severe case, stopping the infusion is the priority. Encouraging fluids is not appropriate for managing this acute reaction. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a different, more severe condition and is not indicated by these symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A 42-year-old woman with a 1-year history of rheumatoid arthritis comes to see her primary care physician complaining of worsening symptoms. She has been taking leflunomide. IL-1 and TNF-α are two key cytokines involved in the negative sequelae of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following drugs is a recombinant form of an endogenous IL-1 antagonist?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RA involves IL-1 and TNF-α driving inflammation. The question seeks a recombinant IL-1 antagonist. Abatacept inhibits T-cell costimulation, not IL-1. Anakinra , a recombinant IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1Ra), blocks IL-1 signaling, matching the description. Methotrexate slows cell proliferation, not an IL-1 antagonist. Hydroxychloroquine modulates immunity differently. Rituximab (E) targets B cells. Anakinra mimics natural IL-1Ra, reducing joint damage in RA when leflunomide fails, directly countering IL-1's effects, unlike broader or unrelated mechanisms of other options.
Question 7 of 9
A client is prescribed Colchicine. After taking three doses, the client complains of nausea, vomiting, and loose bowel stools. Which of the following should the client do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are signs of colchicine toxicity, which can be life-threatening. The client should stop taking the medication and notify the physician immediately. Continuing the medication or adjusting the dose without medical advice can exacerbate the toxicity. Colchicine has a narrow therapeutic index, and close monitoring is required to prevent adverse effects.
Question 8 of 9
While assessing a patient who is taking a beta blocker for angina, the nurse knows to monitor for which adverse effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Beta blockers work by blocking the action of beta-adrenergic receptors, resulting in a decreased heart rate. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of beta blockers, and it is important for the nurse to monitor the patient's heart rate regularly while taking this medication, particularly for individuals with pre-existing heart conditions. Nervousness, hypertension, and dry cough are not typically associated with beta blocker use.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse administers atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with hypertension. Which finding would prompt the nurse to hold the dose and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, lowers blood pressure and heart rate by blocking sympathetic stimulation. A heart rate of 52 bpm is bradycardic (below 60 bpm), a threshold for holding beta-blockers due to risk of inadequate perfusion, especially in hypertension where cardiac output matters. Holding and notifying the physician prevents harm, allowing reassessment. BP of 130/80 is controlled, not urgent. Respiratory rate of 18 and temperature of 98.6°F are normal. Atenolol's selectivity for beta-1 receptors makes bradycardia a key adverse effect, requiring vigilance. This action aligns with nursing protocols for beta-blockers, prioritizing cardiovascular stability, making B the finding warranting immediate intervention.