ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following data collection findings could indicate to the nurse that the patient has a hearing loss, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A relaxed face during conversation typically does not indicate a hearing loss, as the patient is likely able to hear and understand. B, speaking loudly, is a common sign of hearing loss. C, turning towards the speaker, suggests an effort to hear better. D, being withdrawn, could indicate difficulty in communication due to hearing loss. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it does not align with typical signs of hearing loss.
Question 2 of 9
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement. After hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. Patients will need lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal body functions. This is crucial for regulating metabolism, growth, reproduction, and stress response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because abnormal distribution of body hair, increased fluid intake, and repeat surgical procedures are not typically associated with hypophysectomy. It is essential to focus on the long-term management of hormone replacement therapy to ensure the patient's overall health and well-being.
Question 3 of 9
The primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Pulmonary edema is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs due to increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature. Step 2: Decreased left ventricular pumping leads to congestive heart failure, causing increased pressure in pulmonary circulation. Step 3: This increased pressure forces fluid from the capillaries into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema. Step 4: Increased left atrial contractility (B) would not directly lead to pulmonary edema. Step 5: Decreased right ventricular elasticity (C) and increased right atrial pressure (D) are not directly related to the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema. Summary: The correct answer is A because decreased left ventricular pumping directly contributes to the increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation that leads to pulmonary edema. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema.
Question 4 of 9
Which gauge IV cannula should the nurse choose when preparing to initiate a blood transfusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 9
A client is admitted for postoperative assessment and recovery after surgery for a kidney tumor. The nurse needs to assess for signs of urinary tract infection. Which of the ff measures can be used to help detect UTI?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor temperature every 4hrs. This is crucial in detecting signs of urinary tract infection as fever is a common symptom. Monitoring temperature regularly allows for early detection and appropriate intervention. A: Encouraging the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs is a measure to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively, not related to UTI detection. C: Splinting the incision when repositioning the client is important for wound care, not for detecting UTI. D: Irrigating tubes as ordered is a specific intervention for tube care, not for monitoring UTI symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate
Question 8 of 9
A female client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) receives family-planning counseling. Which statement about safer sex practices for persons with HIV is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. Rationale: 1. Latex condoms create a physical barrier that helps prevent the exchange of bodily fluids containing HIV. 2. Spermicide can further reduce the risk of HIV transmission by killing some viruses and bacteria. 3. Research shows that consistent and correct use of condoms is highly effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - A: Unprotected sex between HIV-positive individuals can lead to the transmission of drug-resistant strains or different strains of HIV. - C: Contraceptive methods like birth control pills do not protect against HIV transmission. - D: The intrauterine device is not specifically recommended for clients with HIV due to potential risks of infection.
Question 9 of 9
20-year old Mr. Ang fell off from his horse, and sustained a lft hip fracture. Buck’s extension traction is applied. The following statements are true about Buck’s extension traction except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children due to their growing bones. Instead, it is used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - A: Correct - Buck's extension traction is indeed used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - B: Correct - Buck's extension traction is applied by an orthopedic surgeon under aseptic conditions using wires and pins. - C: Correct - The pulling force in Buck's extension traction is indeed transmitted to the musculoskeletal structures. Therefore, the incorrect option is D as Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children.