ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following data collection findings could indicate to the nurse that the patient has a hearing loss, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A relaxed face during conversation typically does not indicate a hearing loss, as the patient is likely able to hear and understand. B, speaking loudly, is a common sign of hearing loss. C, turning towards the speaker, suggests an effort to hear better. D, being withdrawn, could indicate difficulty in communication due to hearing loss. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it does not align with typical signs of hearing loss.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Blood type A is considered the rarest because it is less common in the general population compared to other blood types. The rarity of blood type A is due to the combination of genetic factors that determine blood type. In contrast, blood types B and O are more common in the population, while blood type AB is considered the universal recipient type and is therefore not the rarest. Blood type A is less prevalent, making it the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves comparing data with other sources to ensure accuracy. This process checks for errors, inconsistencies, and completeness in the data. By comparing data with other sources, nurses can verify the reliability and correctness of the information. Choice A is incorrect because data validation typically occurs after data collection and before data interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because validation is about ensuring data accuracy, not about professional standards. Choice D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on analyzing and making sense of the data, not on professional standards or validation processes.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following groups of terms best describes a nurse-initiated intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse-initiated interventions involve autonomous actions based on clinical judgment to achieve client outcomes. Nurses assess, plan, and implement care independently. Choice A involves physician orders, not nurse-initiated actions. Choice C relates to medical treatment, not nursing interventions. Choice D focuses on collaboration with other providers, not solely nurse-initiated actions. In summary, only choice B aligns with the independent and outcome-focused nature of nurse-initiated interventions.
Question 5 of 9
A new nurse writes the following nursing diagnoses on a patient’s care plan. Which nursing diagnosis will cause the nurse manager to intervene?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. The nurse manager would intervene because hemorrhage is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Wandering (A), urinary retention (C), and impaired swallowing (D) are important assessments but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as hemorrhage. The nurse manager would prioritize addressing the hemorrhage to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 6 of 9
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.
Question 7 of 9
Decreasing level of consciousness is a symptom of which of the following physiological phenomena?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased ICP. Decreasing level of consciousness is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to the compression of the brain. As ICP rises, it impairs cerebral perfusion leading to altered mental status. Parasympathetic response (B) and sympathetic response (C) are related to autonomic nervous system functions, not consciousness. Increased cerebral blood flow (D) might lead to conditions like hyperemia but does not directly cause a decreased level of consciousness.
Question 8 of 9
Of the following information collected during a nursing assessment, which are subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subjective data are information reported by the patient that cannot be measured or observed directly. In this case, nausea and abdominal pain are symptoms that can only be described by the patient, making them subjective data. Vomiting, pulse rate, respirations, blood pressure, pale skin, and thick toenails are all objective data, as they can be measured or observed directly by the healthcare provider. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it represents subjective data.
Question 9 of 9
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.